Solaris Exam Questions


Find out how much you know about Solaris 10 System Administration.

  1. Which is a method by which the Solaris 10 operating system can be installed on a system?
    1. cpio
    2. Live upgrade
    3. Network cloning
    4. rcp
    5. UUCP

  2. Which file contains the software group that was installed on the system?
    1. /usr/adm/install/CLUSTER
    2. /usr/sadm/install_data/CLUSTER
    3. /var/sadm/system/admin/CLUSTER
    4. /var/sadm/system/install/CLUSTER
    5. /var/sadm/system/logs/SWGROUP

  3. Which operating system group supports ftp, NFS, and telnet yet only provides the minimum software required to boot and run Solaris 10?
    1. Core
    2. End User
    3. Entire
    4. Network
    5. Reduced Network

  4. Which installation procedure will provide a completely non-interactive installation of Solaris 10 on an Intel system?
    1. Custom JumpStart using PXE
    2. Custom JumpStart without PXE
    3. Solaris Command Line Interpreter
    4. Solaris Flash Archive Installation
    5. Solaris Live Upgrade

  5. Which file contains the installation log?
    1. /usr/sadm/install/install_log
    2. /usr/sadm/system/install/install_log
    3. /var/sadm/install_data/install_log
    4. /var/sadm/system/install_log
    5. /var/sadm/system/messages

  6. Which are three Name Services that can be selected during a Solaris 10 installation?
    1. ABC, DHCP, WINS
    2. ABC, LDAP, NIS
    3. DHCP, LDAP, WINS
    4. DNS, LDAP, NIS
    5. DNS, LDAP, WINS

  7. An Intel system has a floppy drive and a CD-ROM drive, but booting from the CD-ROM drive is not possible because the BIOS cannot be altered. What installation media is required in addition to the Solaris 10 operating system software?
    1. DHCP server on the network.
    2. LDAP server on the network.
    3. None, it will boot automatically.
    4. Solaris 10 Device Configuration Assistant Diskette
    5. Solaris 10 Operating System DVD

  8. In which directory are host specific configuration files typically be found?
    1. /bin
    2. /dev
    3. /etc
    4. /usr/bin
    5. /var

  9. In which directory should Service Management Facility (SMF) executables be placed?
    1. /bin
    2. /etc
    3. /lib
    4. /smf
    5. /var

  10. What is the name of the smallest addressable unit on a disk platter?
    1. Cylinder
    2. Head
    3. Sector
    4. Slice
    5. Track

  11. Which command is used to perform a device reconfiguration to enable the system to recognize the new tape drive without performing a reboot?
    1. devfsadm
    2. df
    3. fdformat
    4. format
    5. fssnap

  12. Which is not a Solaris 10 command?
    1. backup
    2. df
    3. format
    4. fssnap
    5. label

  13. Which is a Solaris 10 pseudo file system?
    1. EXT2FS
    2. EXT3FS
    3. NFS
    4. PCFS
    5. PROCFS

  14. While running fsck on /export/home what will the fsck command do if the system administrator responds y to a RECONNECT request while checking connectivity?
    1. Delete the superblock.
    2. Put the file referenced by inode number in the /export/home/lost+found directory.
    3. Put the file referenced by inode number in the /lost+found directory.
    4. Put the file referenced by inode number in the /tmp directory.
    5. Remount the /export/home directory.

  15. Which command sequence lists the alternate superblocks for the /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7 file system without creating it?
    1. newfs -a /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s7
    2. newfs -B /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s7
    3. newfs -C /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s7
    4. newfs -N /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s7
    5. newfs -T /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s7

  16. Which command mounts the /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7 file system on the /mnt mount point as a read only file system?
    1. mount -f ufs /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7 /mnt
    2. mount -F ufs -o read /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7 /mnt
    3. mount -F ufs -o ro /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7 /mnt
    4. mount -T ufs -o read /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7 /mnt
    5. mount -T ufs -o ro /mnt /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7

  17. Which file contains information about the file systems that are currently mounted locally on the system?
    1. /etc/dfs/dfshares
    2. /etc/mnttab
    3. /etc/mtab
    4. /var/dfstab
    5. /var/mnttab

  18. What is the format in which individual patches are distributed for the Solaris 10 operating system?
    1. bzip2 archives
    2. cpio archives
    3. RPM
    4. tar archives
    5. zip files

  19. What is the effect of holding down the STOP and D keys simultaneously while a SPARC system being turned on?
    1. It does nothing on a SPARC station.
    2. NVRAM parameters are disabled.
    3. NVRAM parameters revert to default factory settings.
    4. The firmware reverts to default factory settings.
    5. The firmware switches to diagnostic mode.

  20. Which command will display the current OpenBoot PROM revision of the system?
    1. obpdiag -a
    2. obprev -V
    3. prtconf -V
    4. prtdiag -a
    5. prtdiag -V

  21. Which file contains configuration variables that are used to control the booting process on an Intel based system?
    1. /boot/solaris/boot.conf
    2. /boot/solaris/bootenv.rc
    3. /boot/solaris/grub.conf
    4. /boot/solaris/menu.lst
    5. /boot/solaris/solaris.boot

  22. Which file on Solaris 10 Software CD-ROM 2 contains the software required to create a Device Configuration Assistant boot diskette?
    1. /Solaris_10/Tools/boot_diskette
    2. /Solaris_10/Tools/create_diskette
    3. /Solaris_10/Tools/create_image
    4. /Solaris_10/Tools/d1_image
    5. /Solaris_10/Tools/image

  23. At the ok prompt what does the command setenv auto-boot? false do?
    1. Keeps the system from booting.
    2. The system will boot automatically.
    3. The system will boot up into single user mode.
    4. The system will boot up to the ok prompt.
    5. There is a syntax error as the command does not use a question mark.

  24. Which command should be used to correct the keyboard mapping on an Intel system?
    1. configkbd
    2. kdmconfig
    3. loadkeys
    4. /usr/bin/xorgconfig
    5. /var/X11/bin/xconfig

  25. The original default boot disk is still aliased to disk1. Which command needs to be executed for the system to boot from the original boot disk?
    1. devalias boot-device disk1
    2. devalias disk1
    3. nvalias boot-device disk1
    4. nvalias disk1 boot-device
    5. setenv boot-device disk1

  26. Which command can be used at the ok prompt to identify the SCSI peripheral devices that are attached to the on-board SCSI controller and any other separate SCSI controllers?
    1. probe-ide
    2. probe-ide-all
    3. probe-scsi-all
    4. show-devices
    5. show-devs

  27. Which command will bring the system to a rapid halt?
    1. init 1
    2. init 6
    3. poweroff
    4. reboot
    5. shutdown -y

  28. Which is a milestone that can be specified for the Service Management Facility?
    1. multi-user
    2. multi-user-network
    3. multi-user-nfs
    4. s
    5. single-user-system

  29. Which is a delegated restarter for the Service Management Facility?
    1. inetd
    2. init
    3. launchd
    4. svccfg
    5. svc.startd

  30. Which is true regarding FMRI lrc:/etc/rc3_d/S81volmgt?
    1. The volmgt service has 81 instances running.
    2. The volmgt service is a legacy run service and is not currently managed by the SMF.
    3. The volmgt service is currently managed by the SMF.
    4. The volmgt service is not running.
    5. The volmgt service is to be loaded by the rc3 daemon.

  31. Which option of the svcs command explains the states of service instances?
    1. -a
    2. -H
    3. -l
    4. -R
    5. -x

  32. Which statement is false?
    1. Class action scripts that install and remove service manifests are included in the packaging subsystem.
    2. Edit the /var/svc/manifest/milestone/multi-user.xml to customize a manifest.
    3. Service manifests within packages are identified with the class manifest.
    4. When pkgadd is invoked, the service manifest is imported.
    5. When pkgrm is invoked, instances in the manifest that are disabled are deleted.

  33. What is the name of the file that contains the default values for the useradd command?
    1. /etc/defadduser
    2. /etc/default/defadduser
    3. /usr/adm/defadduser
    4. /usr/bin/defadduser
    5. /usr/sadm/defadduser

  34. Which file should be edited to change the password policy rule for minimum number of characters for a valid password?
    1. /etc/default/passwd
    2. /etc/default/shadow
    3. /etc/passwd
    4. /etc/shadow
    5. /usr/sadm/defadduser

  35. Which command displays the last five times the Solaris 10 operating system was rebooted?
    1. grep boot last | tail -5
    2. last reboot | head | grep 'system boot'
    3. rup -5
    4. who -r
    5. wtmpx | tail -5

  36. Which file needs to exist for the Solaris 10 operating system to record login failures?
    1. /var/adm/login
    2. /var/adm/loginlog
    3. /var/log/failure
    4. /var/sadm/login
    5. /var/sadm/loginlog

  37. The user joe has has switched user to root but is still in the home directory for joe, and does not have the expected PATH variable defined. What is the probable cause of this?
    1. The su command never changes directory from the of the original user, regardless of the options used.
    2. The su command only changes directory from the of the original user when the -H option is used.
    3. User joe did not issue the command su -
    4. User joe does not have permission to switch to the root account.
    5. User joe should have issued the su command without any user names or flags.

  38. What is the name of the file that determines where the use of the su command is to be logged?
    1. /etc/default/su
    2. /etc/su
    3. /var/adm/su
    4. /var/adm/sulog
    5. /var/log/su

  39. Which file is used to specify users who are prohibited from connecting to the system using the FTP protocol?
    1. /etc/default/ftpusers
    2. /etc/default/login
    3. /etc/ftp.allow
    4. /etc/ftpd/ftpusers
    5. /etc/inet/ftp

  40. Which is true about the ability of remote users to access the system using the rlogin command if server1 is in the /etc/hosts.equiv file?
    1. All users with the same name from server1 are denied access without a password.
    2. All users with the same name from server1 are denied access without a password, except for root.
    3. All users with the same name from server1 are granted access without a password.
    4. All users with the same name from server1 are granted access without a password, except for root.
    5. The rlogin command never looks into the /etc/hosts.equiv file.

  41. Given the information below regarding the file green what does the l indicate?  
    -r-xr-l---  1 red     class       3756 Feb 11 01:15 green
    1. Mandatory file locking will occur.
    2. The file has a hard link from another file system.
    3. The file has a symbolic link pointing to it.
    4. The group ownership is inherited.
    5. The sticky bit has been set on the file.

  42. Which commands displays primary and secondary group memberships of a user along with its UID?
    1. id -a
    2. id -g
    3. groups
    4. who -l
    5. who -r

  43. Which is the service that listens for HTTP print requests?
    1. http-listen
    2. inetd
    3. in.lpd
    4. ipp-listen
    5. lpd.http

  44. Of the five basic functions of the Solaris 10 Print Service, which is responsible for converting print jobs to the appropriate type of file for the destination printer?
    1. Creating
    2. Editing
    3. Filtering
    4. Scheduling
    5. Tracking

  45. Which SMF command will start the lpsched daemon?
    1. service start lpsched
    2. svcadm enable lpsched
    3. svcadm enable print/server
    4. svcadm start lpsched
    5. svcadm start print/server

  46. Which command is used to view the top processes running on the system?
    1. iostat
    2. proc
    3. prstat
    4. ps -ef | head
    5. top

  47. Which file needs to be modified to prevent an user from using the at command?
    1. /etc/at.deny
    2. /etc/cron.d/at.deny
    3. /etc/cron.d/cron.deny
    4. /etc/default/at.deny
    5. /var/spool/cron/atjobs/at.deny

  48. What happens to an user who appears in both /etc/cron.d/cron.allow and /etc/cron.d/cron.deny files?
    1. Nothing will happen because the cron daemon does not exist in Solaris 10.
    2. The cron daemon will report an error to the root user that these files have been configured incorrectly.
    3. The entry in the cron.allow file takes precedence.
    4. The entry in the cron.deny file takes precedence.
    5. These files do not apply to regular users, and nothing will happen.

  49. Which signal will be sent to the process with a PID of 915 by the command kill 915?
    1. SIGHUP
    2. SIGINT
    3. SIGKILL
    4. SIGQUIT
    5. SIGTERM

  50. A department is very busy during the day and requires the minimum of downtime. The department is closed every Sunday. Which would be an appropriate backup strategy?
    1. Full system backup daily at 9am.
    2. Full system backup every Sunday.
    3. Full system backup every Sunday. Incremental evening backups Monday through Saturday.
    4. Full system backup every Sunday, with monthly incremental backups.
    5. Incremental backup every Sunday. Full system backup monthly.

  51. Which command will create a full filesystem backup of the /export/home file system?
    1. dump 0uf /dev/rmt/0 /export/home
    2. dump 0uf /export/home /dev/rmt/0
    3. fsck /export/home
    4. ufsdump 0S /dev/rmt/0 /export/home
    5. ufsdump 0uf /dev/rmt/0 /export/home

  52. A remote system on the network does not have a tape device. What needs to be configured on the local system to allow the system administrator on the remote system to be able to use the local tape drive for backup purposes?
    1. An entry for the remote system in the /etc/dumpdates file.
    2. An entry for the remote system in the /etc/hosts file.
    3. An entry for the remote system in the /etc/remotes file.
    4. An entry for the remote system in the /.rhosts file.
    5. Nothing is required as access is automatically granted to remote hosts for backups.

  53. The / file system has been restored from backup, but the system will not boot. The recovered file system can be mounted and accessed from CD-ROM. At the OpenBoot prompt, the boot-device alias checked and set correctly. Which critical step in recovering the / file system has possibly been omitted?
    1. Removing the restoresymtable file.
    2. Running the installboot command to restore the boot block.
    3. Running the newfs /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s0 command.
    4. Running the ufsrestore command to restore the files.
    5. Updating the restoresymtable file.

  54. Given the information below regarding the nightly backup levels,
    SundayMondayTuesdayWednesdayThursdayFridaySaturday
    0141412
    the system suffers a power failure at 9am on Saturday. Which sequence of backups should be used to restore the system?
    1. Monday, Wednesday, Friday
    2. Thursday, Friday
    3. Saturday, Tuesday, Thursday
    4. Sunday, Friday
    5. Sunday, Thursday, Friday

  55. Which command lists the files selected to be restored when performing an interactive restore using the ufsrestore command?
    1. count
    2. extract
    3. list
    4. ls
    5. marked

  56. There are active users on the /export/home file system when a snapshot is created for later backups. Which statement is true?
    1. Creating a snapshot of an active file system will cause the system to core dump.
    2. It is not possible to create a snapshot of an active file system.
    3. The file system will be temporarily unmounted and mounted back when the snapshot is complete.
    4. Users will be logged out.
    5. Users will notice a slight pause when writing to the file system.

  57. What would be the consequence of the /export file system running out of free space if the command fssnap -F ufs -o bs=/export/snap /opt were executed?
    1. No further data will be stored in the snapshot.
    2. The file /export/snap/snapshot0 will be deleted.
    3. The file /opt will be deleted.
    4. The snapshot will be compressed.
    5. The system will prompt for more space to be added the /opt file.

  58. Which command deletes the snapshot of the /opt file system?
    1. fssnap -d /opt
    2. fssnap -r /opt
    3. rm /export/snap/snapshot0
    4. rm /export/snapshots/snapshot0
    5. rm /opt

  59. A snapshot was taken at 6pm. An ufsdump backup of the snapshot was performed at 9pm. Recovery took place the next day. Only one user, who was working from 7pm until 8pm, is not able find files created at that time. All other users, who logged out before 6pm, have recovered all their files. What is the reason for this?
    1. The backup created from the snapshot is a copy of the data at the time the snapshot was taken, and not a copy of the data at the time the backup was performed.
    2. The snapshot may have been clobbered.
    3. The ufsdump command cannot be used to backup a snapshot.
    4. The ufsdump command did not backup the correct snapshot.
    5. The user forgot to save the changes made to their files.

  60. Which is true about the ability of remote users to access the system using the rlogin command if server1 is in the /etc/hosts.equiv file?
    1. All users with the same name from server1 are denied access without a password.
    2. All users with the same name from server1 are denied access without a password, except for root.
    3. All users with the same name from server1 are granted access without a password.
    4. All users with the same name from server1 are granted access without a password, except for root.
    5. The rlogin command never looks into the /etc/hosts.equiv file.

  61. What information is requested during an interactive installation of Solaris 10?
    1. Number of users to be added.
    2. Serial number of the CPU.
    3. Solaris 10 software license number.
    4. The MAC address.
    5. The root password.

  62. Which would be the most appropriate installation procedure to install Solaris 10 on a SPARC system over DSL modem connection from a master system?
    1. Automatic installation from CD.
    2. Graphical installation from tape.
    3. Interactive installation from local CD or DVD.
    4. Solaris WAN Boot Installation.
    5. Upgrade installation via ftp.

  63. Which installation method would enable a server to be upgraded to Solaris 10 yet ensure that it would be possible to revert back to the original Solaris 9 operating system if required?
    1. JumpStart
    2. LAN Boot
    3. Live Upgrade
    4. Safe Upgrade
    5. WAN Boot

  64. When installing Solaris 10 from CD-ROM on a SPARC system, which command initiates the installation using command-line interface?
    1. boot cd -cli
    2. boot cd -nogui
    3. boot cd -text
    4. boot cdrom -cli
    5. boot cdrom -nowin

  65. Which partitions are created by default when installing the Solaris 10 operating system?
    1. /, /export/home, and swap
    2. /, /export/home, and /usr
    3. /, /export/home, and /var
    4. /, /usr, and /var
    5. /, /var, and swap

  66. Which is the interactive utility on an Intel based system to correctly configure keyboard, mouse and display?
    1. kdmconfig
    2. kvmconfig
    3. xconfig
    4. xconfigurator
    5. xorgconfig

  67. Which system directory describes the state of all the modules currently loaded by the kernel?
    1. /system/contract
    2. /system/kernel
    3. /system/module
    4. /system/object
    5. /system/proc

  68. Given the information below which statement is true regarding these files?  
    214101 -r-xr-x---  2 ruby    juice     13156 Feb 11 01:15 pink
     
    214101 -r-xr-x---  2 ruby    juice     13156 Feb 11 01:15 red
    1. Files pink and red are directories.
    2. Files pink and red are each 214101 bytes long.
    3. Files pink and red are hard links to each other.
    4. Files pink and red are owned by the user juice.
    5. Files pink and red are soft links to each other.

  69. Which directory contains the logical names used for referencing devices?
    1. /dev
    2. /devices
    3. /kernel
    4. /logical
    5. /proc

  70. Which file relates kernel instances and instance numbers to physical device names?
    1. /etc/minor_perm
    2. /etc/name_to_major
    3. /etc/name_to_sysnum
    4. /etc/path_to_inst
    5. /etc/services

  71. Which non-interactive command is used to write a volume table of contents, which was previously saved in a file, to a hard disk?
    1. devinfo
    2. fmthard
    3. partition
    4. prtvtoc
    5. vtocload

  72. Which is a valid disk base file system on Solaris 10?
    1. CTFS
    2. IOFS
    3. IOS
    4. NFS
    5. UFS

  73. Which command should be used to check and attempt to correct or repair any file system inconsistencies?
    1. devinfo
    2. fsck
    3. partition
    4. prtvtoc
    5. vtocrepair

  74. Which command will forcibly unmount the /opt file system?
    1. umount -a /opt
    2. umount -b /opt
    3. umount -c /opt
    4. umount -d /opt
    5. umount -f /opt

  75. Which command sequence will display the processes currently using the /opt file system?
    1. fuser -cu /opt
    2. fuser -k /opt
    3. fuser -n /opt
    4. lsof -d /opt
    5. lsof -v /opt

  76. Which command provides disk usage and absolute pathname of all directories and subdirectories contained in the /opt file system?
    1. df -k /opt
    2. df -sk /opt
    3. du -k /opt
    4. du -sk /opt
    5. fsck -y /opt

  77. A package, such as SUNWaccr, delivered in a datastream format contains how many files?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 4
    5. 5

  78. Which command can analyze the patch requirements of a system and automatically patch that system with all appropriate patches?
    1. analyze
    2. patchadd
    3. showrev
    4. smpatch
    5. up2date

  79. How can NVRAM parameters be set to default values on a SPARC system?
    1. Press the Stop and A keys simultaneously while the system is turned on until the LED flash.
    2. Press the Stop and N keys simultaneously while the system is turned on until the LED flash.
    3. Run the command nvram-default at the ok prompt.
    4. Run the command probe-scsi-all at the ok prompt.
    5. Run the command reset-all at the ok prompt.

  80. Which command would allow an system administrator to begin to repair files on a system that does not boot?
    1. boot cdrom
    2. fsck /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s0
    3. mount /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s0 /a
    4. mount -F hsfs -o ro /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s0 /cdrom
    5. umount /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s0

  81. Which is a function of the BIOS on an Intel system?
    1. Configures the Master Boot Record.
    2. Controls installed peripheral devices.
    3. Schedules all peripheral interrupts.
    4. Supports USB devices.
    5. Updates the Master Boot Record.

  82. Which directory contains files and directories which are needed to boot an Intel system, but is not found on a SPARC system?
    1. /boot
    2. /dev
    3. /devices
    4. /etc
    5. /usr/sbin

  83. At the OpenBoot prompt, which command will help identify a command with "fcal" in its string?
    1. find fcal
    2. locate fcal
    3. sifting fcal
    4. whereis fcal
    5. which fcal

  84. At the OpenBoot prompt, which command will ensure the system stays at the OpenBoot prompt, when the power is cycled?
    1. clear .registers
    2. set autoboot? false
    3. set autoboot? true
    4. set diag-switch? true
    5. set probe-diag? true

  85. Which command updates the configuration files for the Xorg server?
    1. clear
    2. kdmconfig
    3. /usr/X11/bin/xorg -a
    4. /usr/X11/bin/xorg.conf
    5. /usr/X11/bin/xorgconfig

  86. Which OpenBoot command tells the system to boot from the default boot device without losing the other customized settings?
    1. nvalias boot-device default
    2. nvalias clear
    3. reset boot-device
    4. reset-default
    5. set-default boot-device

  87. Which OpenBoot variable needs to be set to true to enable POST diagnostics?
    1. diag-ext?
    2. diag-on?
    3. diag-switch?
    4. ext-post?
    5. post-diag?

  88. If /etc/system does not exist, and an interactive boot is to be performed. What should be entered when the name of the system file is requested?
    1. /dev/null
    2. /etc/default/boot
    3. /etc/default/system
    4. /etc/inittab
    5. /usr/sbin/system

  89. Which command will replace a corrupt or missing repository with a previous copy?
    1. /lib/svc/bin/rebuild_repository
    2. /lib/svc/bin/recover_repository
    3. /lib/svc/bin/replace_repository
    4. /lib/svc/bin/restore_repository
    5. /usr/sadm/restore_repository

  90. Which command gives expanded information on a system/cron error reported during the boot process?
    1. svcs -a /system/cron
    2. svcs -c /system/cron
    3. svcs -d /system/cron
    4. svcs -v /system/cron
    5. svcs -x /system/cron

  91. Which command disables the smtp:sendmail service?
    1. /etc/init.d/sendmail disable
    2. svcadm disable -t sendmail
    3. svccfg disable -i smtp:sendmail
    4. svccfg disable -t sendmail
    5. svccfg disable -t smtp:sendmail

  92. Which command sequence will set the default milestone to single-user on the next reboot?
    1. svcadm -d milestone single-user
    2. svcadm -v milestone -d single-user
    3. svccfg milestone single-user
    4. svccfg single-user milestone
    5. svcs -d milestone single-user

  93. In which file is the password history parameter set to keep users from reverting back to their previous password?
    1. /etc/default/login
    2. /etc/default/loginhistory
    3. /etc/default/passwd
    4. /etc/security/passwd
    5. /etc/security/policy.conf

  94. Which command display the current set of defaults for new user accounts?
    1. defaultpw
    2. passwd
    3. passwd -D
    4. useradd
    5. useradd -D

  95. Which command returns the current state of the rusers service?
    1. inetadm -c rusers
    2. inetadm | grep rusers
    3. svcadm check rusers
    4. svcs -c rusers
    5. svcs -l rusers

  96. Which file determines the locations of all autofs mount points?
    1. /etc/auto_master
    2. /etc/mnttab
    3. /etc/vfstab
    4. /var/adm/autofs
    5. /var/sadm/autofs

  97. Which command always determines the original login name?
    1. id
    2. id -a
    3. users
    4. who
    5. who am i

  98. What can root do if the CONSOLE variable is blank in the etc/default/login file?
    1. root logins are allowed from everywhere.
    2. root logins are allowed from everywhere except the console.
    3. root logins are disabled.
    4. root logins can only be done from serial device A.
    5. root logins can only be done from the console.

  99. Which will allow remote access to the system by the root user?
    1. Add an entry for root in the /etc/remote/login file.
    2. Comment out the CONSOLE entry from the /etc/default/login file.
    3. Comment out the ROOT=no entry from the /etc/default/login file.
    4. Delete the /etc/nologin file.
    5. Touch the /etc/nologin file.

  100. Which command uses the /etc/hosts.equiv for remote authentication?
    1. ftp
    2. login
    3. rcp
    4. telnet
    5. uptime

  101. Two users need to access files in a directory. User user1 is has a primary group of alpha and a secondary group membership in the group gamma. User user2 is has a primary group of beta and a secondary group membership in the group gamma. The system administrator must set permissions on a directory so that members of the group gamma can access it, and all files created in that directory should belong group gamma. What is the correct permission setting for the directory?
    1. d---rws---
    2. d---rwx---
    3. drwsrw----
    4. drwxrw----
    5. drwxrw-r-x

  102. Two users need to access files in a directory. User user1 is has a primary group of alpha and a secondary group membership in the group gamma. User user2 is has a primary group of beta and a secondary group membership in the group gamma. The system administrator must set permissions to keep users from inadvertently deleting files that do not belong to them. What is the correct permission setting for the directory?
    1. d---------
    2. d---rwxr--
    3. drwsrw----
    4. drwxrw-r-x
    5. drwxrwxrwt

  103. Which command will prevent the print queue from accepting new requests?
    1. lpcancel
    2. lpreject
    3. lpstop
    4. reject
    5. stoplp

  104. Of the five basic functions of the Solaris 10 Print Service, which is responsible for ensuring the printer is in a known state before submitting a request for printing?
    1. Creating
    2. Editing
    3. Initialization
    4. Scheduling
    5. Tracking

  105. Which daemon acts upon connection requests and either submits them to the lpsched daemon for immediate printer or holds them in the spool area?
    1. in.lpd
    2. in.ppd
    3. lpconnect
    4. lpd
    5. lpsched

  106. Which command will kill a process immediately?
    1. kill
    2. kill -1
    3. kill -9
    4. kill -TERM
    5. stop

  107. Which empty file should be created to deny users access to the cron facility?
    1. /etc/cron.allow
    2. /etc/cron.block
    3. /etc/cron.deny
    4. /usr/adm/cron.allow
    5. /usr/adm/cron.deny

  108. Given the following crontab entry
    30 6 * * 5 /var/loginfo
    when will it be executed?
    1. At 5:00 in the morning on June 30.
    2. At 6:00 in the morning on May 30.
    3. Every Friday at 6:30 in the morning.
    4. Every Saturday at 5:30 in the morning.
    5. Every Thursday at 6:30 in the morning.

  109. Which command deletes all the crontab entries of an user?
    1. cron -e
    2. cron -rm
    3. crontab -e
    4. crontab -l
    5. crontab -r

  110. Which would ensure the minimum loss of data?
    1. Run ufsdump 0uf/dev/rmt/0 daily.
    2. Run ufsdump 1uf/dev/rmt/0 daily.
    3. Run ufsdump 1uf/dev/rmt/0 monthly.
    4. Run ufsdump 1uf/dev/rmt/0 weekly.
    5. Run ufsdump 9uf/dev/rmt/0 twice a day.

  111. Which command should be run on a unmounted file system to ensure that it is in a consistent state before backing it up?
    1. format
    2. fsck
    3. lock
    4. lsof
    5. ndatachk

  112. An entry for both servers is in their respective /etc/inet/hosts file exists. What other entry is needed for a remote ufsdump backup to succeed?
    1. An entry for the local system in the /etc/hosts.equiv file.
    2. An entry for the local system in the /remote_hosts file.
    3. An entry for the remote system in the /.hosts.equiv file.
    4. An entry for the remote system in the /.rhosts file.
    5. No other entry is needed.

  113. Which command will display a list of the files currently selected to be restored using ufsrestore -i?
    1. dir
    2. list
    3. ls
    4. marked
    5. select

  114. Which command will add files to be restored using ufsrestore -i?
    1. add
    2. choose
    3. list
    4. mark
    5. select

  115. Which file is used by ufsrestore to pass information about files and directories between incremental restores?
    1. chkpoint
    2. increaseinfo
    3. infoincrease
    4. restoresymtable
    5. select

  116. Which command gives details about a snapshot that was created for the /export/home file system, with the snapshot being the first one stored in the /snapshot file system?
    1. fssnap -i /export/home
    2. fssnap -i /snapshot/0
    3. fssnap -o /snapshot/0
    4. /usr/lib//fs/ufs/fssnap -i /export/home
    5. /usr/lib//fs/ufs/fssnap -i /snapshot/0

  117. Which command will backup a snapshot and place an entry in the /etc/dumpdates file to indicate the slice that the snapshot was taken of?
    1. fssnap auf /dev/rmt/0 /dev/fssnap/0
    2. fssnap Nuf /dev/rmt/0 /dev/fssnap/0
    3. fssnap Nuf /dev/rmt/0 /dev/rdsk/dev/c0t0d0s0
    4. ufsdump 0uf /dev/rmt/0 /dev/fssnap/0
    5. ufsdump 0ufN /dev/rmt/0 /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s0 /dev/rfssnap/0

  118. To restore a file originally created from an UFS snapshot, what additional option to the ufsrestore command is required when performing the restore?
    1. No additional option is required.
    2. Use the -a option.
    3. Use the -i option.
    4. Use the -s option.
    5. Use the -x option.

  119. When restoring a directory using the ufsrestore -i command what is the effect of answering 'y to the question set owner/mode for '.'? [yn]?
    1. All restored files will be owned by the UID of the user running the ufsrestore command.
    2. The ownership of all restored files will be set to the root user.
    3. The ownership of all restored files will be set to the same as the directory that the files are being restored to.
    4. The ownership of all restored files will be set to the same as the root directory of the file system from which they were backed up.
    5. The ownership of all restored files will be set to the same as they were originally set to, prior to the backup.

  120. What is the name of the file that contains the names of the software groups that are available for the Solaris 10 operating system?
    1. /usr/bin/system/admin/.clustertoc
    2. /var/sadm/system/admin/.clustertoc
    3. /var/sadm/system/admin/.listcluster
    4. /var/sadm/system/admin/.lscluster
    5. /var/sadm/system/admin/.prtcluster

  121. Which software group is found in the Solaris 10 operating system?
    1. Core User
    2. End User
    3. Full
    4. Programmer
    5. Programming

  122. What is the minimum disk space needed to install the Solaris 10 operating system on an Intel based system?
    1. 1-3 Gigabytes
    2. 3-5 Gigabytes
    3. 5-7 Gigabytes
    4. 1-3 Terabytes
    5. 18-30 Terabytes

  123. Which software group is found in the Solaris 10 operating system?
    1. Core User
    2. End User
    3. Full
    4. Programmer
    5. Programming

  124. Which is the minimum Software Metacluster that includes the libraries, the include files and programming tools required for developing software?
    1. SUNWCdeveloper
    2. SUNWCprog
    3. SUNWCuser
    4. SUNWVuser
    5. SUNWXprogr

  125. Which item of information which must be supplied in an interactive installation of a networked Solaris 10 operating system?
    1. IP address.
    2. Number of users to be added.
    3. Serial number of the CPU.
    4. Solaris 10 software license number.
    5. The MAC address.

  126. What information is requested on the first system reboot during a Solaris 10 installation?
    1. NFSv4 domain name.
    2. Serial number of the CPU.
    3. Solaris 10 software license number.
    4. System name.
    5. The MAC address.

  127. Which command will boot an Intel system so that it installs, using the text installer in a console session?
    1. b
    2. b - nowin
    3. boot
    4. boot cdrom
    5. boot cdrom -text

  128. Which command will list i-node numbers of files?
    1. la
    2. ln -a
    3. ln -i
    4. ls -i
    5. ls -x

  129. By convention which slice on an Intel based system contains the bootblock and VTOC?
    1. 0
    2. 2
    3. 4
    4. 6
    5. 8

  130. How many Solaris fdisk partitions can be allocated to Solaris on a single hard disk on a 32-bit Intel system?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 4
    4. 8
    5. 15

  131. Which file contains predefined partition tables that can be used by the format utility?
    1. /etc/device.dat
    2. /etc/format.dat
    3. /etc/vtoc.dat
    4. /usr/sadm/format.dat
    5. /usr/sadm/vtoc.dat

  132. Which command will modify the minfree value to 1%?
    1. fstune -m 1 /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s0
    2. minfree -m 1 /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s0
    3. modify -m 1 /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s0
    4. setune -m 1 /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s0
    5. tunefs -m 1 /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s0

  133. Which statement describes the output of the command du -hs /var?
    1. A summary of the available space in the /var file system by kilobytes.
    2. A summary of the disk usage by hidden files in the /var file system.
    3. A summary of the file system usage in the /var file system by user.
    4. A summary of the free disk space in the /var file system by user.
    5. A summary of the total disk usage of the /var file system in human readable units.

  134. In which directory will unreferenced files be placed if fsck is performed on the /var file system?
    1. /lost+found
    2. /tmp
    3. /unreferenced
    4. /var
    5. /var/lost+found

  135. Which command will mount the file system on the floppy disk on the /dos mount point?
    1. mount /dev/floppy/0 /dos
    2. mount -F msdos /dev/diskette/0 /dos
    3. mount -F msdos /dev/fd0 /dos
    4. mount -F msdos /dev/floppy0 /dos
    5. mount -F pcfs /dev/diskette /dos

  136. Which command will mount a CD-ROM that is attached to the Primary IDE channel as the Slave device?
    1. mount -F cdrom -o ro /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s0 /cdrom
    2. mount -F hsfs /dev/cdrom/cdrom /ide
    3. mount -F hsfs -o ro /dev/cdrom/cdrom /cdrom
    4. mount -F hsfs -o ro /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s0 /cdrom
    5. mount -F hsfs -o ro /dev/slave /cdrom

  137. Which command will convert packages into a single data stream package?
    1. pkgadd -s
    2. pkgmake -s
    3. pkgstream -s
    4. pkgtrans -s
    5. pkgtransmit

  138. When adding a patch with the patchadd command, what does the -d option do?
    1. Adds patches only to the current domain.
    2. Adds patches to all domains.
    3. Gets the trusted certificate authority certificates when verifying digital signatures found in each patch.
    4. It does not save the original files that were replaced or changed.
    5. It saves the original files that were replaced or changed.

  139. Where does output of the POST go to on a SPARC system that does not have a keyboard?
    1. To /dev/null
    2. To serial port A.
    3. To the console.
    4. To the graphics monitor.
    5. To the network port.

  140. What is the effect of removing the line KEYBOARD_ABORT=disable from the file etc/default/kbd?
    1. Escape sequences can only be sent from a terminal attached to serial port A.
    2. Interrupting the system using the Stop-A key sequence is disabled under all circumstances.
    3. Interrupting the system using the Stop-A key sequence is only allowed during the boot sequence.
    4. Only the root user can use the Stop-A sequence.
    5. The Stop-A sequence is enabled.

  141. Which are phases of the boot process on an Intel based system?
    1. BIOS reads and loads pboot
    2. BIOS runs POST
    3. MBR reads and loads pboot
    4. OpenBoot prompt
    5. The kernel reads /etc/sysconfig/system

  142. Which command will boot an Intel system into the multi-user-server milestone without changing any configuration files?
    1. b
    2. b multi
    3. b multi-user
    4. b s
    5. b server

  143. Which OpenBoot command will display the complete device tree of the system?
    1. dev-show-all
    2. dev-tree
    3. show-all
    4. show-all-devices
    5. show-devs

  144. A device alias for new_boot has been created. Which command on SPARC will reboot a server from an alternative boot device called new_boot?
    1. eeprom boot-device=new_boot
    2. eeprom boot-file=new_boot
    3. eeprom reboot=new_boot
    4. eeprom reboot-device=new_boot
    5. reboot boot-device=new_boot

  145. Which command will reconfigure the graphics settings on an Intel based system?
    1. /usr/bin/Xconfig
    2. /usr/bin/xhost
    3. /usr/X11/bin/xconfig
    4. /usr/X11/bin/xhost
    5. /usr/X11/bin/xorgconfig

  146. Which OpenBoot command will cause the system to prompt for key information about the behavior of the boot sequence?
    1. boot -a
    2. boot -b
    3. boot -i
    4. boot -inter
    5. boot -prompt

  147. Which NVRAM variable would enable extended POST output, when set to true?
    1. diag-ext?
    2. diag-on?
    3. diag-switch?
    4. ext-post?
    5. post-diag?

  148. During which phase of the Boot Process is the /etc/system file read?
    1. Boot programs
    2. Device configuration
    3. Kernel initialization
    4. Network configuration
    5. SMF initialization

  149. Which are two distinct phases of the boot process on a SPARC based system?
    1. File System and Kernel
    2. Hard Disk and Kernel
    3. Hard Disk and System
    4. Kernel and Network
    5. Kernel and System

  150. Which command displays other services that depend on the system-log service?
    1. svcadm -A svc:/system/system-log:default
    2. svcadm -H svc:/system/system-log:default
    3. svcs -D svc:/system/system-log:default
    4. svcs -H svc:/system/system-log:default
    5. svcs -S svc:/system/system-log:default

  151. Which command brings the system to the OpenBoot prompt without running shutdown scripts?
    1. halt
    2. init 5
    3. off
    4. shutdown
    5. sync

  152. In creating a new service under the control of SMF, which is an appropriate directory for this storing file?
    1. /etc
    2. /etc/init.d
    3. /etc/svc/init.d
    4. /lib/svc/method
    5. /usr/local/method

  153. Which file is not accessed during login?
    1. ~/.login
    2. /etc/group
    3. /etc/login.defs
    4. /etc/passwd
    5. /etc/shadow

  154. Where should the system administrator set a site specific umask?
    1. /.login
    2. /.profile
    3. /etc/login.defs
    4. /etc/profile
    5. /etc/skel/local.profile

  155. Which will record all the failed login attempts?
    1. Create the file /var/adm/loginlog with the correct mode, owner and group.
    2. Run the command last.
    3. Run the command who.
    4. Run the command wtmp.
    5. Set the parameter SYSLOG_FAILED_LOGINS in /etc/default/login to 1.

  156. Which is used to determine the time and date of the most recent system reboot?
    1. finger
    2. init -r
    3. last
    4. runlevel
    5. wtmp

  157. What causes su - joe not to prompt for a password?
    1. The joe account is listed in the /etc/hosts.allow file.
    2. The joe account is listed in the /etc/hosts.equiv file.
    3. The joe account is of the same primary group as the original user.
    4. The joe account is of the same secondary group as the original user.
    5. The user was previously logged in as root.

  158. Which option of the su command sets the environment variable PATH to that of new user?
    1. -
    2. -b
    3. -c
    4. -d
    5. -e

  159. Which file is read by the in.ftpd daemon to see if a user is allowed FTP login privileges?
    1. /etc/ftpcheck
    2. /etc/ftpd/ftpcheck
    3. /etc/ftpd/ftpusers
    4. /etc/pam.d
    5. /etc/vfstpd

  160. Which entry in the /.rhosts file will allow any user from the named host to access the system as the local user?
    1. +@group
    2. +@group.user
    3. hostname +
    4. user +
    5. user#hostname +

  161. Which will set the group id on the directory dir?
    1. chmod 1777 dir
    2. chmod 4775 dir
    3. chmod g+s dir
    4. chmod u+s dir
    5. suid dir

  162. Which will change the file permissions of a new binary file called script to allow any user to run it with the UID of the user test?
    1. chmod 1777 script
    2. chmod 4775 script
    3. chmod g+s script
    4. chmod u=script
    5. chmod u=test

  163. Which command will notify users that the printer named parts is broken, and prevent any further print jobs being submitted to the printer?
    1. delete broken parts
    2. lprm -r parts broken
    3. lpstat -r parts broken
    4. reject -r broken parts
    5. reject -r parts broken

  164. Which command will remove the configuration for a printer from the system?
    1. lpadmin -d
    2. lpadmin -x
    3. lpdelete -p
    4. lpdelete -x
    5. lpremove

  165. Which command moves print requests queued by lp or lpr between destinations?
    1. lpadmin -m
    2. lpmove
    3. lpmv
    4. lpq
    5. lpstat -m

  166. Which command prevents queuing of print requests for the named destinations?
    1. delete
    2. lpq
    3. lprm
    4. lpstat -r
    5. reject

  167. Which is a directory the lpsched daemon uses to keep track of print requests?
    1. /var/adm/requests
    2. /var/lp/requests
    3. /var/lpsched/requests
    4. /var/spool/lp/queue/system_name
    5. /var/spool/lp/requests/system_name

  168. Which command will delete a job from the at queue?
    1. at -r
    2. atq
    3. atq -r
    4. crontab -d
    5. crontab -r

  169. What would cause a regular user not be authorized to create a crontab file?
    1. Only root is authorized to create a crontab file.
    2. The permissions on the file /etc/crontab are set incorrectly.
    3. The user appears in the file /etc/cron.deny.
    4. The user appears in the file /etc/cron.d/cron.deny.
    5. The user does not appear in the file /etc/cron.allow.

  170. Which command is used to send a signal to a process?
    1. pgrep
    2. pkill
    3. prstat
    4. ps
    5. pstree

  171. What is the default action taken by the cron daemon with output generated by commands it runs in crontab file entries?
    1. The system aborts as all output must be redirected to a file or terminal window.
    2. The system creates a file called cron.out in the user's home directory.
    3. The system creates a file called cron.output in the user's home directory.
    4. The system mails all output and errors to the user.
    5. The system writes the output to /dev/console.

  172. What effect does the -v option have on the ufsdump command?
    1. It causes ufsdump to constantly list the percentage of the backup completed.
    2. It lists the contents as the backup is created.
    3. It writes the backup to a virtual device.
    4. Nothing, there is no -v option.
    5. The backup is verified against the file system being backed up.

  173. What is the purpose of the u option when using the ufsdump command?
    1. It causes ufsdump to store the UID of all files.
    2. Maintains the original user permissions on the files.
    3. Nothing, there is no u option.
    4. To include all undeleted files in the backup.
    5. Update the /etc/dumpdates file.

  174. When is the most appropriate time to run a level 0 backup using ufsdump if the system peak times are Monday through Saturday from 5:30 am until 11:30 pm?
    1. Daily at 5:30 am.
    2. Monday at 5:00 am.
    3. Monday at 5:30 am.
    4. Saturday at 5:30 am.
    5. Sunday at 5:00 am.

  175. Which file will report when the last level 0 backup ran using the ufsdump command?
    1. /etc/backup
    2. /etc/date
    3. /etc/dates
    4. /etc/dumpdates
    5. /etc/dumplog

  176. If the /opt filesystem has become corrupt, which command should be executed first, before restoring the /opt filesystem from tape backup?
    1. fsck /opt
    2. mount /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s5 /opt
    3. newfs /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s5
    4. umount /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s5
    5. umount /opt

  177. On an Intel based system, which command will place the boot block and partition boot program on the disk?
    1. installboot /usr/platform/`uname -i`/lib/fs/ufs/bootblk /dev/rdsk/c1d0s0
    2. installboot /usr/platform/`uname -i`/lib/fs/ufs/bootp /dev/rdsk/c1d0s0
    3. installboot /usr/platform/`uname -i`/lib/fs/ufs/pblock /dev/rdsk/c1d0s0
    4. installboot /usr/platform/`uname -r`/lib/fs/ufs/pblock /dev/rdsk/c1d0s0
    5. installboot /usr/platform/`uname -i`/lib/fs/ufs/vtoc /dev/rdsk/c1d0s0

  178. Given the output of ifconfig -a below
    lo0: flags=2001000849 <UP,LOOPBACK,RUNNING,MULTICAST,IPv4,VIRTUAL>
     mtu 8232 index 1
            inet 127.0.0.1 netmask ff000000 
    iprb0: flags=1004842<BROADCAST,RUNNING,MULTICAST,DHCP,IPv4> mtu 1500
    index 2
            inet 192.168.0.101 netmask ffffff00 broadcast 192.168.0.255
            ether 0:2:a5:4c:a1:15 
    what is a reason why the command telnet 192.168.0.251 fail?
    1. Only root can connect using the telnet command.
    2. The IP address is invalid.
    3. The network interface iprb0 is not showing the flag UP.
    4. The telnet daemon is not running on the local host.
    5. The telnet daemon is not running on the remote host.

  179. Which command will display information about which snapshot relates to which file system?
    1. fssnap -i
    2. snap -al
    3. snapshot -al
    4. snapshot -l
    5. ufssnap -i

  180. When using the ufsrestore -i command of a backup created from a snapshot, what is the effect of answering n to set owner/mode for '.'? [yn] after executing the extract command?
    1. Any restored files will be owned by the UID of the user running the ufsrestore -i command.
    2. The ownership of any restored files will be set to be the same as that of the directory that the files are being restored to.
    3. The ownership of any restored files will be set to be the same as the directory they were backed up from.
    4. The ownership of any restored files will be set to the root user.
    5. The protection mode of any restored files will be set to the root user's umask.

  181. A snapshot has been deleted using fssnap -d, but the space occupied by the snapshot has not been released. What additional step must be taken to release the space previously occupied by the snapshot?
    1. Delete the backing store file from the backing store using the rm command.
    2. Old snapshots are removed up by a cron job which runs daily.
    3. Old snapshots are removed up by a cron job which runs every hour.
    4. Run the command fssnap -r.
    5. Unmount and remount the backing store file system.

  182. Given the output of df -h below
    Filesystem             size   used  avail capacity  Mounted on
    /dev/dsk/c0d0s0        9.6G   2.4G   7.2G    25%    /
    /devices                 0K     0K     0K     0%    /devices
    proc                     0K     0K     0K     0%    /proc
    mnttab                   0K     0K     0K     0%    /etc/mnttab
    swap                   647M   621K   647M     1%    /etc/svc/volatile
    /dev/dsk/c0d0s3        1.6G   150M   1.5G     9%    /var
    swap                   637M    68K   637M     1%    /tmp
    /dev/dsk/c0d0s7         29G   8.2G    21G    28%    /app
    which command would successfully take a snapshot of the / file system?
    1. fssnap -F ufs -o bs=/app /
    2. fssnap -F ufs -o bs=/bin /
    3. fssnap -F ufs -o bs=/etc /
    4. fssnap -F ufs -o bs=/devices /
    5. fssnap -F ufs -o bs=/var /

  183. Given the output of ls -l /usr/share/local below
    drwxr-----   5 root     root      1245  Apr 22 11:22 /usr/share/local
    and the output of cat /etc/dfs/dfstab below
    share -F nfs -o rw=system1 /usr/share/local
    what access will the root user on the host system1 have to the /usr/local/share directory shared by the server?
    1. The root user will have complete access to the directory /usr/local/share.
    2. The root user will have read access to the directory /usr/local/share.
    3. The root user will have read and write access to the directory /usr/local/share.
    4. The root user will have read, write and execute access to the directory /usr/local/share.
    5. The root user will not have any access to the directory /usr/local/share.

  184. Which OpenBoot command will display the MAC address?
    1. address-mac
    2. ifconfig -a
    3. ifconfig hme0
    4. ok address
    5. ok banner

  185. An inetd based application has been installed and a correctly formatted entry in the /etc/inet/inetd.conf file. A HUP signal to the inetd daemon is sent, but the new service cannot be accessed by the client. Which is a solution to this problem?
    1. Bring the network interfaces down and up to reflect the new application.
    2. Reboot the system to ensure that new service configurations are picked up.
    3. Run the inetconv command to import the configuration information in to SMF.
    4. Run the svcs command to update the configuration information in to SMF.
    5. Send a HUP signal to the svc.startd daemon as well.

  186. Which command will examine the network traffic passing between two systems, host1 and host2, without seeing any traffic passing to or from any other system on the network?
    1. dhcpagent host1 host2
    2. dhcpagent -o host1 host2
    3. snoop host1 host2
    4. snoop -d host1 -o host2
    5. snoop -i host1 -o host2

  187. Which daemon is responsible for starting RPC services on demand?
    1. cron
    2. inetd
    3. portmap
    4. rpcbind
    5. xinetd

  188. Which are requirements for the sizing of the swap space?
    1. It must be at least four times the amount of physical RAM on the system.
    2. It must be at least two times the amount of physical RAM on the system.
    3. It must be distributed across a minimum of two disk slices.
    4. It must be large enough to hold a crash dump in a single slice and support the needs of all running processes.
    5. It must be smaller than the amount of physical RAM on the system.

  189. A new slice on a spare hard disk has been created and swap -a /dev/dsk/c1t1d0s1 has been executed. Which file needs an entry to in order for the extra swap space to be available after a system reboot?
    1. /etc/fstab
    2. /etc/init.d/swap
    3. /etc/mtab
    4. /etc/swap
    5. /etc/vfstab

  190. Which is true of global core files in the Solaris 10?
    1. They are enabled by default for all processes.
    2. They are owned by the root user and have the sticky bit set on them.
    3. They are owned by the root user and their permission mode is set to 600.
    4. They are password protected.
    5. They can only be generated by system daemons.

  191. Which command is used to configure a dedicated dump device?
    1. coreadm -a /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s0
    2. coreadm -d /dev/rdsk/c0t1d0s0
    3. dumpadm -a /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s0
    4. dumpadm -d /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s0
    5. savecore -Lv /dev/dsk/c1t1d0s0

  192. Which file is edited to restrict the use of NFS on the server to only version 4?
    1. /etc/default/nfs
    2. /etc/dfs/dfstab
    3. /etc/export
    4. /etc/exportfs
    5. /etc/nfs/default

  193. If concerns exist over the stability of the NFS servers from which the resources are mounted, which options should be used when mounting via NFS?
    1. intr and remount
    2. intr and soft
    3. noxattr and remount
    4. noxattr and soft
    5. remount and soft

  194. Given the output of ifconfig hme0 below
    lo0: flags=2001000849<UP,LOOPBACK,RUNNING,MULTICAST,IPv4,VIRTUAL> mtu 8232 index 1
            inet 127.0.0.1 netmask ff000000 
    hme0: flags=1000843<UP,BROADCAST,RUNNING,MULTICAST,IPv4> mtu 1500 index 2
            inet 192.168.0.2 netmask ffffff00 broadcast 192.168.0.255
    what is a reason why the MAC address of the hme0 interface is not in the output?
    1. The ifconfig command was not run by the root user.
    2. The ifconfig command was not run inside a zone.
    3. The ifconfig command was not run with the -a option.
    4. The ifconfig command was run inside a zone.
    5. The MAC address interface has not been configured.

  195. What is the likely cause of the error message below?
    nfs mount: server: : RPC: Program not registered nfs mount: retrying: /mnt
    1. The directory has not been shared by the server.
    2. The IP address of the server is incorrect.
    3. The mountd daemon is not running.
    4. The name of the mounted directory on the server is incorrect.
    5. The name of the server is incorrect.

  196. Which will increase the length of time before automounted file system are automatically unmounted?
    1. Edit the time out value in the /etc/default/autofs file.
    2. Edit the time out value in the /etc/dfs/dfstab file.
    3. Run the mount -t command.
    4. Send a HUP signal to the automountd daemon.
    5. Send a HUP signal to the mountd daemon.

  197. Given the entry in the /etc/auto_master file below
    /local	auto_local -nobrowse
    what type of entry is this?
    1. A direct map entry.
    2. A local map entry.
    3. A special map entry.
    4. An incorrect entry.
    5. An indirect map entry.

  198. What is the storage capacity of a RAID5 volume consisting of five 4 Gbyte disk slices?
    1. 4 Gbytes
    2. 5 Gbytes
    3. 15 Gbytes
    4. 16 Gbytes
    5. 20 Gbytes

  199. Which is an advantage of using concatenated RAID 0 volumes?
    1. Concatenated volumes provide hot spare capabilities.
    2. Concatenation provides redundancy thereby making data loss less likely in the event of hardware failure.
    3. It is possible to expand active mounted filesystems created on a concatenated RAID 0 volume without having to bring the system down.
    4. It is possible to write to each slice in parallel which improves performance.
    5. Parity data is stored which enables data to be rebuilt if a slice in the volume goes down.

  200. Which RAID configuration is best for write-intensive applications, where hardware costs are not a consideration and performance is not an issue?
    1. RAID 0 concatenation
    2. RAID 0 mirror
    3. RAID 0 stripe
    4. RAID 1 mirror
    5. RAID 5 stripe with parity

  201. Which is true about state database replicas?
    1. The system will boot if only half are available.
    2. The system will degrade and run slower if fewer than half are available.
    3. The system will panic if fewer than half are available.
    4. The system will panic if only half are available.
    5. The system will stop running if only half are available.

  202. Which feature of the Solaris Volume Manager Software permits subdividing a slice into multiple volumes?
    1. Hard slices.
    2. LVM partitions.
    3. Partition manager.
    4. Soft partitions.
    5. Soft slices.

  203. Given the following unused free slices
    c0t0d0s4
    c0t0d0s5
    c1t0d0s4
    c1t0d0s5
    c2t0d0s5
    c2t0d0s6
    which slices should be used for the state database replicas in a fault tolerant configuration?
    1. c0t0d0s4, and c0t0d0s5
    2. c0t0d0s4, c0t0d0s5, and c1t0d0s4
    3. c0t0d0s4, and c1t0d0s4
    4. c0t0d0s4, c1t0d0s4, and c2t0d0s5
    5. c1t0d0s5, c2t0d0s5, and c2t0d0s6

  204. What is needed to mirror the root slice using Solaris Volume Manager (SVM)?
    1. Change the OBP boot-device variable and run the metaroot command.
    2. Unmount the root file system.
    3. Update the /kernel/devices/md.conf file.
    4. Update the /kernel/drv/md.conf file.
    5. Update the /kernel/drv/md.conf file and unmount the root file system.

  205. Which command will create three state databases for the first time?
    1. metadb -a -f c0t0d0s3 c1t2d0s4 c3t3d0s1
    2. metadb -f c0t0d0s3 c1t2d0s4 c3t3d0s1
    3. metainit -a c0t0d0s3 c1t2d0s4 c3t3d0s1
    4. metainit -f c0t0d0s3 c1t2d0s4 c3t3d0s1
    5. metastat -a -f c0t0d0s3 c1t2d0s4 c3t3d0s1

  206. What would happen to a system if the submirrors are attached in the wrong order?
    1. Nothing; the order does not matter.
    2. The mirrors will not synchronizes.
    3. The mirrors will only synchronize at next reboot.
    4. The system will be destroyed.
    5. The system will be slow as the mirror synchronizes.

  207. Which command will update the /etc/vfstab file as part of mirroring the / file system?
    1. metadb
    2. metaroot
    3. metastat
    4. metasync
    5. metaupdate

  208. When configuring Role Based Access Control (RBAC), which can be assigned to a Rights Profile?
    1. A password.
    2. A profile shell.
    3. A rights profile.
    4. A role.
    5. A system profile.

  209. Which is the best way of delegating the management of printers and the printing service to several responsible users without granting them full super user privileges?
    1. Allocate all the rights and authorizations for printer administration directly to the accounts of the responsible users.
    2. Change the permissions on the printer administration files.
    3. Create a role account with the required rights and authorizations for printer administration and give all responsible users access to this account.
    4. Create a role account with the required rights and authorizations for system administration and give all responsible users access to this account.
    5. Give all the responsible users access to the root password.

  210. Given the output below below
    # grep helper /etc/security/prof_attr
    helper:::auths=solaris.jobs.grant;help=JobsGrant.html
    # grep helper /etc/user_attr
    jdoe::::type=normal;profiles=helper
    with the user jdoe having authorization solaris.jobs.grant as part of the rights profile helper, which is the effect of the grant suffix at the end of the authorization?
    1. The user can delegate any assigned authorizations with the same prefix to other users.
    2. The user can delegate all assigned authorizations.
    3. The user can delegate the role of helper to another user.
    4. The user can delegate the role of helper to users with the same profile.
    5. The user can grant other authorizations to the profile helper.

  211. Which command displays information about the access a role has together with the security attributes associated with each command?
    1. auths -v
    2. profiles -l
    3. rights -la
    4. rights -lv
    5. roles -lv

  212. Which file is used to associate rights profiles with commands and security attributes?
    1. /etc/exec_attr
    2. /etc/security/exec_attr
    3. /etc/security/prof_attr
    4. /etc/security/user_attr
    5. /etc/user_attr

  213. Which command displays the authorizations granted to users?
    1. authgrant
    2. authmod -l
    3. auths
    4. usergrant -a
    5. usermod

  214. By default, in which file are messages about incoming telnet sessions found?
    1. /dev/sysmsg
    2. /etc/syslog.conf
    3. /etc/sysmsg
    4. /var/adm/messages
    5. /var/log/messages

  215. Which command will cause the syslogd daemon to re-read the /etc/syslog.conf file?
    1. cat /var/adm/messages
    2. kill -HUP /etc/syslog.conf
    3. logger -p kern.info
    4. logger -p local0.info
    5. svcadm refresh system/system-log

  216. What is the name of the power management configuration file?
    1. /etc/default/power
    2. /etc/init/pm.conf
    3. /etc/init/power.conf
    4. /etc/power.conf
    5. /var/sadm/power

  217. To where can the syslogd daemon can route messages?
    1. Only to a remote server.
    2. Only to a file that exists.
    3. Only to a group defined in /etc/groups.
    4. Only to the file /var/adm/messages.
    5. To other hosts on the network and to a file that exists.

  218. Given the entry from /etc/syslog.conf below
    auth.notice                    ifdef(`LOGHOST', /var/log/authlog, @loghost)
    what will syslogd do with auth.notice messages if host2 is defined as the loghost in the /etc/inet/hosts file?
    1. The auth.notice messages will be discarded.
    2. The auth.notice messages will be forwarded to the system host2 which is defined as loghost in the /etc/inet/hosts file.
    3. The auth.notice messages will be sent to /var/adm/messages on the system.
    4. The auth.notice messages will be sent to /var/log/authlog on the system.
    5. The auth.notice messages will be stored in the /var/log/messages file.

  219. Which hierarchical, and Internet-wide, naming service should be used to centralize shared information about hosts and IP addresses?
    1. ADS
    2. DNS
    3. LDAP
    4. NIS
    5. NIS+

  220. Which is true about the NIS naming service?
    1. Does not use a domain hierarchy.
    2. Has root and non-root Master Servers.
    3. Stores information in the /etc/nis directory.
    4. Uses a Directory Information Tree.
    5. Uses Relative Distinguished Names.

  221. A role account called printer is created with the correct rights profile to perform printer administration and is allocated to a user called jdoe. User jdoe needs to disable the print queue and uses the su command to switch to the role printer and gets the error message
    su: Unknown id: printer
    what is the likely cause of this error message?
    1. The /etc/sudoers file needs an entry for the role of printer.
    2. The nscd daemon needs to be restarted in order to remove old cached data.
    3. The system needs to be rebooted if changes are made to RBAC configurations.
    4. The user should have used the su - command.
    5. The user should have used the sudo command.

  222. Given the contents of the /etc/ined/hosts file below
    # Internet host table
    #
    127.0.0.1       localhost
    192.168.0.1   server1
    why would the getent hosts server1 command not return the IP address of server1?
    1. The getent command is used to query DNS servers and server1 in not in the DNS records.
    2. The ldap_cachemgr daemon does not server1 in its cache.
    3. The name service switch file is not configured to search local files for host information.
    4. The syntax of the getent command is asking for the IP address of the hosts system.
    5. The ypbind daemon is not running.

  223. Given the contents of the /etc/ined/hosts file below
    # Internet host table
    #
    127.0.0.1       localhost
    192.168.0.1   server1
    why would the getent hosts server1 command not return the IP address of server1?
    1. The getent command is used to query DNS servers and server1 in not in the DNS records.
    2. The ldap_cachemgr daemon does not server1 in its cache.
    3. The name service switch file is not configured to search local files for host information.
    4. The syntax of the getent command is asking for the IP address of the hosts system.
    5. The ypbind daemon is not running.

  224. What is the maximum number of search domains that can be specified for a DNS client on Solaris 10?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 4
    4. 6
    5. 8

  225. Which daemon is responsible for maintaining and updating the client profile information in an LDAP configuration?
    1. ldap_cachemgr
    2. ldap_clientd
    3. ldap_profiled
    4. ldap_serverd
    5. ldap_updated

  226. Which two daemons are running on an NIS master server?
    1. rpc.masterd and ypbind
    2. rpc.nisd and ypbind
    3. rpc.nisd and rpc.yppasswdd
    4. rpc.nispasswdd and ypbind
    5. rpc.yppasswdd and ypbind

  227. Which two daemons are NIS+ daemons?
    1. rpc.masterd and in.yppasswdd
    2. rpc.masterd and ypbind
    3. rpc.nisd and rpc.nispasswdd
    4. rpc.nispasswdd and ypbind
    5. rpc.yppasswdd and ypbind

  228. Which file defines the parameters to configure the domain so that only certain networks or hosts are allowed access to information supplied by the Network Information Service?
    1. /etc/yp/securehosts
    2. /etc/yp/securenets
    3. /var/nis/securenets
    4. /var/yp/securenets
    5. /var/yp/securenetwork

  229. Which will rebuild NIS maps whose timestamp is older than the modification time of the ASCII text files they are based on?
    1. /etc/yp/updatemap
    2. /usr/ccs/bin/make
    3. /usr/ccs/bin/nis
    4. /usr/ccs/bin/update
    5. /var/nis/make

  230. Which will ensure that the root user's password account information is not incorporated in the NIS passwd maps?
    1. Change the home directory for root.
    2. Change the PWDIR value in the /var/yp/Makefile file.
    3. Copy the /etc/passwd file into the /etc/yppasswd directory.
    4. Delete the /etc/yppasswd file.
    5. Remove the encrypted password from the /etc/shadow file.

  231. Which statement is true about Solaris 10 zones?
    1. All users in a non-global zone can see all processes running on the system.
    2. All zones must have the same services configured.
    3. Each zone requires its own CPU on which to run.
    4. The root user in a non-global zone can see all processes running on the system.
    5. Zones can share a single network interface.

  232. Which statement is true about Solaris 10 zones?
    1. All users in a non-global zone can see all processes running on the system.
    2. All zones must have the same services configured.
    3. Each zone requires its own CPU on which to run.
    4. The root user in a non-global zone can see all processes running on the system.
    5. Zones can share a single network interface.

  233. What is the name of the daemon that is primarily responsible for managing the zone's virtual platform?
    1. zoneadmd
    2. zoned
    3. zoneprocd
    4. zsched
    5. zstatd

  234. Which daemon keeps track of per-zone kernel threads?
    1. zoneadmd
    2. zoned
    3. zoneprocd
    4. zsched
    5. zthreadd

  235. When using the zonecfg utility, what is the effect of the create -b command?
    1. It specifies the zone as a backup zone.
    2. It specifies the zone boots automatically on system startup.
    3. It specifies the zone is a whole root zone.
    4. It specifies the zone uses the global zone's service configuration.
    5. Nothing; there is no -b option.

  236. A zone called zone1 is configured and installed, but has not yet been booted. What items are requested after executing the following commands?
    # zoneadm -z zone1 ready
    # zlogin -C zone1
    1. Default router and DNS server name.
    2. Default router and IP address.
    3. IP address and DNS server name.
    4. IP address and timezone.
    5. Name service, root password, and timezone.

  237. In order to configure, install and boot a zone named zone1, which command should be executed first?
    1. zoneadm -z zone1 boot
    2. zoneadm -z zone1 install
    3. zonecfg -z zone1
    4. zonecfg -z zone1 boot
    5. zonecfg -z zone1 verify

  238. A zone called zone1 is configured and installed, but has not currently running. From the global zone, the following command is executed
    # zonecfg -z zone1 delete
    Which is the reason why the command failed?
    1. The proper syntax is zonecfg -r zone1.
    2. The proper syntax is zonecfg -z zone1 remove.
    3. The zone must be deleted from inside the zone, and not the global zone.
    4. The zone must be deleted with the zoneadm command.
    5. The zone must be uninstalled before being deleted.

  239. Which service must reside on the same subnet as the client to support RARP requests?
    1. Boot services
    2. Configuration services
    3. Identification services
    4. Installation services
    5. Time services

  240. Which is a source from which JumpStart clients can obtain identification information?
    1. The /etc/config/sysidcfg file on the configuration server.
    2. The /etc/ether file on the configuration server.
    3. The /etc/hosts file on the configuration server.
    4. The /etc/inetd/config file on the boot server.
    5. The /etc/inetd/config file on the configuration server.

  241. Which is a source from which JumpStart clients can obtain identification information?
    1. The /etc/config/sysidcfg file on the configuration server.
    2. The /etc/ether file on the configuration server.
    3. The /etc/hosts file on the configuration server.
    4. The /etc/inetd/config file on the boot server.
    5. The /etc/inetd/config file on the configuration server.

  242. A JumpStart server that is offering all of the component JumpStart services has been configured. The following command is executed
    ok boot net - install w
    but a TIMEOUT AWAITING ARP/RARP packet error message is displayed. What is the probable cause of this error?
    1. The installation type must be furnished on the command line.
    2. The JumpStart server does not have the correct Ethernet address for the client.
    3. The JumpStart server does not have the correct IP address for the client.
    4. The name of the boot server must be furnished on the command line.
    5. The name of the JumpStart script must be furnished on the command line.

  243. A JumpStart client has the following entry in its sysidcfg file
    system_locale=en_US
    system_locale=C
    timezone=US/Eastern
    timeserver=localhost
    terminal=sun-cmd
    name_service=NIS {domain_name=a.b.c.com
                       name_server=d(192.168.2.3)}
    system_locale=en_US
    security_policy=NONE
    Which is the effect of having two system_locale entries in this file?
    1. The check script will generate an error.
    2. The client installation will go into an interactive installation at the selection of the locale.
    3. The first entry found will be used.
    4. The entry found on the name server will be used.
    5. The second entry found will be used.

  244. Which statement is true?
    1. A dd image of a system can be used to install a system using JumpStart.
    2. A flash archive of a system can be used for a replicate a system on other systems and can be used as a custom JumpStart procedure.
    3. A tar archive of a system can be used to install a system using JumpStart.
    4. An ufsdump image of a system can be used as the basis for a custom JumpStart installation.
    5. JumpStart cannot be used to reinstall a replica server with exactly the same configuration as is currently configured.

  245. When creating a flash archive of the local system in the /export/flash directory, which option to the flar create command should be use to prevent the /export/flash directory from being included in the archive?
    1. -a
    2. -b
    3. -c
    4. -x
    5. -y

  246. Which is the platform specified with the add_install_client command when configuring a JumpStart Configuration server for an Intel-based system?
    1. AMD64
    2. i86pc
    3. isparc
    4. ultra
    5. x86pc

  247. On a DHCP server, which vendor option in JumpStart supplies the name of the boot server?
    1. SjumpsCF
    2. SinstIP4
    3. SrootIP
    4. SrootNM
    5. SsysidCF

  248. Which command will produce a noise to help in determining which cable belongs to which workstation?
    1. ifconfig -a
    2. nslookup
    3. snoop -a
    4. snoop -n
    5. watch

  249. Which service should be examined to see if there is a service-related configuration problem?
    1. svc:/network/configuration:default
    2. svc:/network/interface:config
    3. svc:/network/interface:default
    4. svc:/network/physical:default
    5. svc:/network/services:config

  250. Which two files need to be edited to configure an Intel based system to have the iprb0 interface configured at system boot?
    1. /etc/hostname.iprb0 and /etc/inet/hosts
    2. /etc/hostname.iprb0 and /etc/network/iprb0
    3. /etc/inet/hosts and /etc/inet/iprb0.conf
    4. /etc/iprb0.config and /etc/network/iprb0
    5. /etc/iprb0.config and /etc/services

  251. Which two files need to be edited to change the IP address of a Solaris 10 system?
    1. /etc/hostname and /etc/inet/hosts
    2. /etc/hostname and /etc/inet/ipaddress
    3. /etc/inet/hosts and /etc/inet/ipnodes
    4. /etc/inet/ipaddress and /etc/nodename
    5. /etc/inet/ipnodes and /etc/services

  252. Which command would provide information about why a service is not running?
    1. inetadm
    2. inetadm -l
    3. svcadm
    4. svcs -xv
    5. watch

  253. Which command will show whether NFS services are registered with the rpcbind daemon on the server?
    1. inetadm
    2. inetadm -l
    3. nfsstat -v
    4. rpcinfo -p
    5. svcadm

  254. Which command will show the full pathname of the in.telnetd daemon?
    1. inetadm telnet
    2. inetadm -l telnet
    3. svcadm telnet
    4. svcs -l telnet
    5. whereis telnet

  255. The command swap -d /export/data/swapfile was run to remove the swap file from the swap configuration. The command swap -l shows it has been removed from the swap configuration. However, the command df shows that the space is not free. What else needs done to reclaim the space occupied by the swap file?
    1. Reboot the system.
    2. Run the command rm /export/data/swapfile
    3. Run the command swap -u
    4. Run the command vmstat
    5. Run the command vmsync -r /export/data/swapfile

  256. Which file must be edited to ensure a spare slice from a disk be allocated and associated with swap space on subsequent reboots?
    1. /etc/mnttab
    2. /etc/swapfile
    3. /etc/swaptab
    4. /etc/swaptable
    5. /etc/vfstab

  257. Which commands is used to ensure that all core files are placed in the /var/dump directory regardless of where they originate?
    1. coreadm -e global -g /var/dump
    2. coreadm -p /var/dump
    3. dumpadm -e global -g /var/dump
    4. dumpadm -p /var/dump
    5. dumpcore -d process

  258. What does the command dumpadm -m 5% do?
    1. Crash dumps are limited to capturing a maximum of 5% of physical RAM.
    2. Crash dumps are limited to occupying a maximum of 5% of disk space.
    3. Crash dumps are not written if doing so would reduce free space in the filesystem where the savecore directory is located to below 5%.
    4. Crash dumps are written in a compressed format with a minimum compression ratio of 5%.
    5. Crash dumps only succeed if they capture a minimum of 5% of physical RAM.

  259. Which two mounting options to automatically mount a remote filesystem via NFS on bootup and ensure the system will continue to boot to the multi-user-server milestone even if the remote filesystem is not available?
    1. bg and fg
    2. bg and hard
    3. bg and soft
    4. fg and hard
    5. fg and soft

  260. Given the following entry in the /etc/dfs/dfstab file
    share -F nfs -o ro,rw=sales,root=admin /export/stuff
    which statement is true?
    1. All action words after ro are ignored; for read and write access, rw must be listed first.
    2. Only root and sales on the client admin have read access to the shared resource.
    3. Only sales on the client admin has read access to the shared resource.
    4. Only sales on the client admin has read and write access to the shared resource.
    5. The client system sales has read and write access to /export/stuff.

  261. What is the combined effect of an NFS mount with options fg and hard?
    1. If the resource is unavailable the client will hang while it attempts to mount the resource.
    2. If the resource is not available, the client will pause during the boot sequence and prompt for confirmation to continue to boot.
    3. If the resource is not available, the client will report an error, and will continue to boot.
    4. The resource will not mount because fg is not a valid NFS mount option.
    5. The resource will not mount because hard is not a valid NFS mount option.

  262. Given the following error message
    stale NFS file handle
    when attempting to access a resource mounted from an NFS server, which will solve the problem?
    1. Remount the file system on the client.
    2. Remove the entry from the /etc/mnttab file.
    3. Remove the entry from the /etc/vfstab file.
    4. Restart the nfsd daemon.
    5. Restart the nfslogd daemon on the client.

  263. A system administrator needs to create automount map entries for six hundred users whose accounts all reside on a central server in the /export/home directory. The user accounts are evenly split into six user groups. How many entries does the system administrator need to create in the /etc/auto_home file?
    1. 1
    2. 6
    3. 100
    4. 600
    5. 3600

  264. Given the following output from the profiles -l user command
          Media Backup:
              /usr/bin/mt    euid=0
              /usr/sbin/tar    euid=0
              /usr/lib/fs/ufs/ufsdump    euid=0, gid=sys
          All:
              * 
    which commands will the user role have access to?
    1. All command on the system with super user privileges.
    2. Only the commands /usr/bin/mt, /usr/sbin/tar and /usr/lib/fs/ufs/ufsdump.
    3. Only the commands /usr/bin/mt, /usr/sbin/tar and /usr/lib/fs/ufs/ufsdump.
    4. The commands /usr/bin/mt, /usr/sbin/tar and /usr/lib/fs/ufs/ufsdump as a regular user.
    5. The commands /usr/bin/mt, /usr/sbin/tar and /usr/lib/fs/ufs/ufsdump with super user privileges, and all other commands that do not have a restricted authorization as a regular user.

  265. Which RAID configuration will allocate extra space very quickly by concatenating two slices?
    1. RAID 0
    2. RAID 1
    3. RAID 3
    4. RAID 5
    5. RAID 7

  266. What is the storage capacity of six slices, each of 3 Gbytes, using two way mirrors and having a RAID 1+0 configuration?
    1. 3 Gbytes
    2. 6 Gbytes
    3. 9 Gbytes
    4. 12 Gbytes
    5. 15 Gbytes

  267. Given twelve 36Gbytes disks to be managed using Solaris Volume Manager (SVM), which is a valid configuration that can be built from these components?
    1. A 288Gbytes RAID 1+0 volume.
    2. A 432Gbytes RAID 0 volume.
    3. A 432Gbytes RAID 1+0 volume.
    4. A 432Gbytes RAID 3 volume.
    5. A 432Gbytes RAID 5 volume.

  268. By default, how many logical volumes is the Solaris Volume Manager software configured for?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 32
    4. 64
    5. 128

  269. Up to how many logical volumes per disk set can the Solaris Volume Manager software support?
    1. 128
    2. 256
    3. 1024
    4. 4096
    5. 8192

  270. Where is the information stored about the configuration of Solaris Volume Manager volumes?
    1. In one of the reserved cylinders of the hard disk.
    2. In the /dev/state file.
    3. In the /etc/state file.
    4. In the state database.
    5. In the VTOC.

  271. When configuring Solaris Volume Manager logical volumes, what is the minimum number of state database replicas that are required to create?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 4
    5. 8

  272. When configuring Solaris Volume Manager logical volumes, what is the minimum number of state database replicas that need to be available for the system to boot?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 4
    5. 8

  273. Which option of the metadb command forces the creation of state databases, even though a state database does not exist?
    1. -add
    2. -b
    3. -c
    4. -d
    5. -f

  274. What does the roleadd -m -d /export/home/support -P "disk manager" -A "solaris.admin.usermgr.*" support do?
    1. A new role called disk manager was added and has the authorization solaris.admin.usermgr.* granted to it and belongs to the group support.
    2. A new role called support was added and has the authorization solaris.admin.usermgr.* granted to it.
    3. A new user called support was created with a new home directory of /export/home/support.
    4. The user support has been modified, by adding the profile disk manager and the authorization solaris.admin.usermgr.* to it.
    5. The user support has been modified, by changing the home directory to /export/home/support and the authorization solaris.admin.usermgr.* to it.

  275. The /export/home file system is mounted on /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s7. Given the following sequence of commands
    metainit -f d3 2 1 c0t0d0s7 1 c2t3d0s4
    umount /export/home
    mount /dev/md/dsk/d3 /export/home
    growfs -M /export/home /dev/md/rdsk/d3
    what action is being performed?
    1. Create a one way mirror on a slice already assigned to a metadevice.
    2. Create a one way mirror on /export/home.
    3. Create a RAID 0 concatenation and grow the /export/home file system.
    4. Create a RAID 5 device.
    5. Mount /export/home on /dev/md/rdsk/d3.

  276. Which file should be edited to allow all users to have access to the authorization allowing them to use the CD writer on the server?
    1. /etc/prof.attr
    2. /etc/security/auth_attr
    3. /etc/security/policy.conf
    4. /etc/security/prof_attr
    5. /etc/user_attr

  277. There is an user account prtmgr which is a role account. This account needs to be allocated to a regular user to perform privileged printer management tasks without having full access to the root account. Which command determines the commands associated with the prtmgr role?
    1. cat /etc/role
    2. ls -l prtmgr
    3. profiles -l printmgr
    4. roles -l prtmgr
    5. sudo -l prtmgr

  278. Given the following listing of an /etc/auto_master file
    # Master map for automounter
    #
    +auto_master
    /net            -hosts          -nosuid,nobrowse
    /home           auto_home       -nobrowse
    /-		auto_man	-nobrowse
    which statement is true?
    1. The /- entry defines the mount point for indirect maps.
    2. The /- entry is a pointer that instructs the automount facility that the full pathnames are defined in the file auto_man.
    3. The /home entry defines the mount point for indirect maps.
    4. The /home entry is an direct map for users home directories.
    5. The -nobrowse option prevents all mount points from being visible.

  279. Which file contains information about the commands associated with a Role Based Access Control (RBAC) Rights Profile and the associated attributes?
    1. /etc/security/attributes.db
    2. /etc/security/exec_attr
    3. /etc/security/prof_attr
    4. /etc/security/rbac_attr
    5. /etc/user_attr

  280. Which command displays the contents of rights profiles and the associated security attributes for the user jdoe?
    1. exec -l jdoe
    2. profile -l jdoe
    3. profiles -l jdoe
    4. right -l jdoe
    5. rights -l jdoe

  281. Which statement is true regarding logging?
    1. local0.info is a valid facility and level.
    2. local1.info is not a valid facility and level.
    3. The logger command always logs at user.notice.
    4. The syslogd daemon creates local log files.
    5. The syslogd daemon will not route local0.info messages.

  282. Which is not a valid facility for syslog?
    1. app
    2. auth
    3. daemon
    4. kern
    5. mail

  283. Given the following entry in the /etc/syslog.conf file
    *.alert;kern.err                         oper
    what happens to messages sent by the syslogd daemon when the user oper user is not logged in?
    1. No messages are sent.
    2. The messages are cached until oper logs in.
    3. The messages are discarded.
    4. The messages are stored in /var/adm/messages.
    5. The messages are stored in /var/log/oper.

  284. The system is defined as the loghost in the /etc/inet/hosts file. The /etc/syslog.conf file has an ifdef statement in it. Which command would correctly evaluate the ifdef statement to ensure specified messages go to the correct destination?
    1. /usr/ccs/bin/m4 -D LOGHOST /etc/syslog.conf
    2. /usr/ccs/bin/m4 -T LOCALHOST /etc/syslog.conf
    3. /usr/ccs/bin/m4 -T LOGHOST /etc/syslog.conf
    4. /usr/xpg4/bin/m4 -T LOCALHOST /etc/syslog.conf
    5. /usr/xpg4/bin/m4 -Y LOGHOST /etc/syslog.conf

  285. Which is a characteristic of the LDAP Naming Service?
    1. Has non-root master servers.
    2. Has root master servers.
    3. Information is stored in maps.
    4. Uses a Directory Information Tree.
    5. Uses multi column tables.

  286. Given the following entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file
    hosts: dns [UNAVAIL=return] files
    when will local files be consulted in order to resolve a hostname or IP address?
    1. Always.
    2. Never.
    3. Only if the DNS service is not running.
    4. Only if the entry is not found in local files.
    5. Only if the entry is not found in the DNS database.

  287. Which command will clear the cached data to properly implement changes to the Role Based Access Control (RBAC) configuration?
    1. svcadm refresh system/name-service-cache:default
    2. svcadm restart system/name-service-cache:default
    3. svcs -c system/name-service-cache:default
    4. svcs -r system/name-service-cache:default
    5. svcs -u system/name-service-cache:default

  288. What is the main advantage of the getent command?
    1. It runs interactively, requesting which name service you want to search for the information.
    2. It searches the information sources in the order they are configured in the name service switch file.
    3. It searches the name servers recursively.
    4. It searches the name services alphabetically.
    5. It uses the name service search commands in order.

  289. Which two files are created when an LDAP client is configured?
    1. /etc/ldap/ldap_client and /var/ldap/ldap_cache
    2. /etc/ldap/ldap_client_config and /var/ldap/ldap_cache
    3. /etc/ldap/ldap_client_config and /var/ldap/ldap_client_file
    4. /var/ldap/ldap_cache and /var/ldap/ldap_client_file
    5. /var/ldap/ldap_client_cred and /var/ldap/ldap_client_file

  290. What other file besides /etc/resolv.conf does a system need to be configured as a DNS client?
    1. /etc/dns.conf
    2. /etc/hosts
    3. /etc/ldap/ldap_client
    4. /etc/nsswitch.conf
    5. /var/switch.conf

  291. What is the default directory for the location of NIS maps?
    1. /etc/yp/domainname
    2. /etc/yp/maps
    3. /var/nis/maps
    4. /var/yp/domainname
    5. /var/yp/maps

  292. What is the purpose of the /var/yp/securenets file?
    1. It defines the kerberos domains for which the NIS master is responsible.
    2. It defines the names and IP addresses of the NIS master server.
    3. It defines the names and IP addresses of the NIS slave servers.
    4. It limits the clients and networks to which queries will be answered.
    5. It specifies how communication between servers and clients is encrypted.

  293. Which command builds a master ypserver database?
    1. nismaster
    2. ypbind
    3. ypinit -m
    4. ypserver
    5. ypstart -m

  294. One NIS client on the network is unable to connect to the NIS master, even though this client can ping all the other systems in the network. What should be checked?
    1. The network cables.
    2. The NIS domain name on the client.
    3. The server processes on the master.
    4. The /var/yp/Makefile file on the client.
    5. The /var/yp/Makefile file on the server.

  295. Which is false about zones on Solaris 10?
    1. All zones share the same Solaris kernel.
    2. Each non-global zone contains a subset of the Solaris OS software packages.
    3. It is a requirement that applications installed in a non-global zone are also installed in the global zone.
    4. It is not possible to configure a non-global zone inside another non-global zone.
    5. Non-global zones can only be configured inside a global zone.

  296. What are the possible zone states?
    1. Configured, Incomplete, and Installed.
    2. Configured, Incomplete, and Suspended.
    3. Incomplete, and Installed.
    4. Installed, Intact, and Suspended.
    5. Installed and Suspended.

  297. Which is false about zones on Solaris 10?
    1. A zone will have its own local /dev directory.
    2. A zone will have its own local /etc directory.
    3. A zone will have its own local /kernel directory.
    4. A zone will have its own local /var directory.
    5. By default the /lib directory is not mounted from the global zone.

  298. Which command will show the complete zone boot process for a zone called myzone?
    1. tail -f /var/adm/zone:myzone.log
    2. zlogin boot myzone
    3. zlogin myzone boot
    4. zoneadm -z myzone boot
    5. zonecfg -z myzone start

  299. What information may be requested for the zone at first boot?
    1. The hostname for the zone.
    2. The IP address for the zone.
    3. The MAC address for the zone.
    4. The name of the non-global zone.
    5. The state of the zone.

  300. Which two services are found in a JumpStart configuration?
    1. Configuration and Identification.
    2. Configuration and Initialization.
    3. Identification and Initialization.
    4. Identification and Software.
    5. Installation and Software.

  301. Which file is essential on a server and is used to provide JumpStart clients with client identification information?
    1. /etc/inet/hosts
    2. /etc/inet/jumpstart.conf
    3. /etc/inet/sysid.cfg
    4. /etc/yp/sysid.cfg
    5. sysidcfg

  302. A server has been configured to provide Boot, Identification, Configuration and Installation Services over the network. At the ok prompt, the server is booted by typing the command:
    boot net - install
    The installation appears to be proceeding well through the RARP and TFTP phases until the message shown below appears
    panic - boot: Could not mount filesystem
    Program terminated
    What should be checked on the server?
    1. The client IP address in in the /etc/inet/hosts file.
    2. The client MAC address in the /etc/ethers file.
    3. The directory mentioned in the /etc/bootparams file is correctly shared in the /etc/dfs/dfstab file.
    4. The in.rarpd daemon is running.
    5. The TFTP service is running.

  303. Which file on the server should be edited to to modify the configuration on the JumpStart server to add patches to a specific client as part of the automatic installation procedure?
    1. bootparams
    2. profile
    3. rules
    4. rules.ok
    5. sysidcfg

  304. Which statement is false about using a flash archive to install a Solaris 10 client?
    1. Archives must come from a single master system.
    2. Differential archives can be used when installing clients.
    3. Flash archives can be made available from various sources including HTTP and FTP servers.
    4. Flash based installations do not support the configuration of Solaris Volume Manager logical volumes during installation.
    5. It is possible to configure Solaris Volume Manager logical volumes during installation.

  305. Given the command
    flarcreate -n /sales_config -x /usr/local -x /flash \
    >-y /usr/local/sales_scripts /flash/sales_flash
    Which statement is true?
    1. The flash archive was created from the /sales_config directory.
    2. The name of the archive is sales_flash.
    3. The name of the archive is /usr/local/sales_scripts.
    4. The /sales_config directory is excluded from the archive.
    5. The /usr/local directory is excluded.

  306. Which is a requirement for a JumpStart environment supporting PXE Clients?
    1. A CD-ROM drive.
    2. A DHCP Server.
    3. A DNS Server.
    4. A floppy drive.
    5. A JumpStart boot server on each subnetwork.

  307. When installing a number of Intel based clients using JumpStart with PXE, the JumpStart server needs to be configured to support each JumpStart client. Which option is used with the add_install_client script to specify a DHCP client when configuring a PXE client?
    1. -d
    2. -i86pc
    3. -p
    4. -x
    5. -x86

  308. Which files should be edited to change the name of a workstation?
    1. /etc/inet/hosts, /etc/inet/ipnodes and /etc/netmasks
    2. /etc/inet/hosts, /etc/inet/ipnodes and /etc/nodename
    3. /etc/inet/ipnodes, /etc/netmasks and /etc/sysconfig/network
    4. /etc/netmasks and /etc/sysconfig/network
    5. /etc/nodename, /etc/services and /etc/sysconfig/network

  309. Which command will save output generated from a network connectivity test to a file called save?
    1. netconfig -f save
    2. netconfig -o save
    3. netstat -i save
    4. snoop -f save
    5. snoop -o save

  310. Which command will enable the Ethernet interface?
    1. ifconfig hme0 -on
    2. ifconfig hme0 up
    3. ipconfig hme0 -on
    4. ipconfig hme0 up
    5. kill -HUP ifconfig

  311. What should be done to change the system name, IP address, domain name, timezone, locale, router, and name service?
    1. Edit the /etc/inet/hosts file.
    2. Edit the /etc/passwd file and the /etc/shadow file.
    3. Reinstall the entire Solaris 10 operating system.
    4. Run the setup command.
    5. Run the sys-unconfig command.

  312. Given output from the svcs -a command below
    offline        6:15:06 svc:/application/print/ipp-listener:default
    offline        6:15:11 svc:/application/print/rfc1179:default
    Which command will diagnose why these services are offline?
    1. inetadm -x
    2. svcadm enable print/rfc1179
    3. svcadm examine print/rfc1179
    4. svcs -SH
    5. svcs -xv

  313. Which mechanism do the TCP and UDP transport protocols use to identify which application a network service request is destined for?
    1. IP address
    2. Port number
    3. Program number
    4. Protocol number
    5. Version number

  314. Which command will temporarily disable all RPC services?
    1. inetadm -a rpc/bind:default
    2. inetadm disable rpc/bind:default
    3. svcadm -a rpc/bind:default
    4. svcadm disable -t rpc/bind:default
    5. svcs -a rpc/bind:default

  315. Which term describes the pages that contain private data or stack information of a running process that do not exist in any file system on disk?
    1. Anonymous Memory Pages
    2. Paged Memory Pages
    3. Process Memory Pages
    4. Saved Memory Pages
    5. Swap Memory Pages

  316. Which comprises virtual memory?
    1. BIOS, CPU and RAM
    2. BIOS, CPU and Swap Space
    3. CPU and RAM
    4. Disk Space and Swap Space
    5. RAM and Swap Space

  317. Which command will set the dump configuration variable DUMPADM_ENABLE to no so as to not run savecore automatically on reboot?
    1. dumpadm -n
    2. dumpadm -r
    3. dumpadm -s
    4. dumpadm -u
    5. dumpadm -y

  318. Which command will recreate the file /etc/coreadm.conf with the default values if it were deleted?
    1. coreadm -u
    2. dumpadm -r
    3. kill -HUP coreadmd
    4. mkfile /etc/coreadm.conf
    5. touch /etc/coreadm.conf

  319. Given the following entry in the /etc/dfs/dfstab file
    share -F nfs -o anon=-1 /export/db
    what is the effect of the anon=-1 entry?
    1. All ACL have been disabled.
    2. All users have root access to this file system.
    3. Anonymous FTP is disabled.
    4. Unauthenticated users will be denied access to this file system.
    5. Users on other clients have read only access to this file system.

  320. Which command will unmount a file system?
    1. mount -f
    2. rmmount -f
    3. rmount -u
    4. umount -f
    5. umount -s

  321. A client displays the following message while booting
    NFS server server1 not responding, still trying
    what is the probable cause?
    1. The client is unable to locate an IP address for the server.
    2. The client is unable to resolve the hostname of the server.
    3. The network between the client and the server is down.
    4. The server is in a different building.
    5. The server is on a different subnet to the client.

  322. When trying to view some shared documentation after several hours, the following error message appears
    stale file handle
    what is the probable cause?
    1. The client is unable to locate an IP address for the server.
    2. The client is unable to resolve the hostname of the server.
    3. The mount command has timed out.
    4. The resource on the server has been moved to a different location.
    5. The server has crashed.

  323. Which statement is true about the AutoFS file system?
    1. AutoFS maps can be stored in a network naming service.
    2. It allows normal users to access the mount command.
    3. It can only be used to mount NFS file systems.
    4. It is a file system used to manage only NFS resources.
    5. It is implemented by the svc:/network/autofs service.

  324. Which statement is false about AutoFS?
    1. AutoFS can mount file system types other than NFS.
    2. AutoFS is implemented by the svc:/system/network/autofs service.
    3. The AutoFS mechanism allows for the automatic mounting of file systems on demand.
    4. The AutoFS mechanism does not give normal users access to the mount command.
    5. The file system is automatically unmounted when the timeout period has been exceeded on an inactive mount point.

  325. Which statement is true about state database replicas?
    1. All the replicas do not need to be on the same controller.
    2. Each replica is 8 Mbytes in size by default.
    3. Each replica is 16 Mbytes in size by default.
    4. Each replica is 32 Mbytes in size by default.
    5. Replicas cannot be created on unused slices.

  326. Which are valid mirror read policies in Solaris Volume Manager?
    1. Fastest and First
    2. Fastest and Geometric
    3. Fastest and Parallel
    4. First and Geometric
    5. Geometric and Parallel

  327. Which RAID configuration offers improved write performance?
    1. RAID 0 Concatenation
    2. RAID 0 Parallel
    3. RAID 0 Stripe
    4. RAID 1
    5. RAID 5 Concatenation

  328. Which statement is true when comparing RAID 1 mirror with the performance of RAID 5?
    1. Access to the data on RAID 5 is much slower.
    2. Hardware costs are highest with RAID 5.
    3. RAID 1 is faster than RAID 5 in every case.
    4. With RAID 5 any failure will result in no access to that data while the data is rebuilt from the parity information.
    5. Write operations are slower on RAID 1.

  329. A file system is mirrored on the volume d10, the primary submirror is d12, and the secondary submirror is d12 . The / file system needs to be unmirrored. Which command is executed last to unmirror this file system?
    1. init 6
    2. metaclear d12
    3. metaclear -r d10
    4. metadetach d10 d12
    5. metaroot /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s0

  330. Solaris Volume Manager has been configured on a Solaris 10 system and it has two state database replicas on each of three disks in the system. How many state database replicas are needed to be available for the system to continue to run?
    1. 2
    2. 3
    3. 4
    4. 6
    5. 8

  331. One half of a Solaris Volume Manager mirrored volume has been configured on a Solaris 10 system. Which command will add a device as the second submirror?
    1. metaclear
    2. metacreate
    3. metainit
    4. metasync
    5. metattach

  332. Which command can be used to update the /etc/system file and the /etc/vfstab file and reset a system that has been configured to boot the root file system on a logical volume so that it uses a physical slice?
    1. metaclear
    2. metacreate
    3. metadb
    4. metaroot
    5. metastat

  333. Which command will assign access to the role printmgr to an existing user print?
    1. adduser -m -d /export/home/print -r printmgr print
    2. roleadd -m -d /export/home/user1 -R printmgr print
    3. roleadd -R printmgr print
    4. useradd -m -d /export/home/print -R printmgr print
    5. usermod -R printmgr print

  334. Which command will assign the Printer Management rights profile to the user print?
    1. profiles -a -u "Printer Management" print
    2. profiles -u "Printer Management" print
    3. roleadd -u "Printer Management" print
    4. useradd -P "Printer Management" print
    5. usermod -P "Printer Management" print

  335. Which command displays current default settings for roles?
    1. profiles -v
    2. roleadd -D
    3. roles -v
    4. useradd -all
    5. useradd -D -r

  336. Which command must be executed prior to a reboot to update the /etc/system file and the /etc/vfstab file to use the RAID 1 volume as the mount point for the root file system?
    1. metaclear
    2. metacreate
    3. metadb
    4. metaroot
    5. metastat

  337. Which RBAC configuration file should be updated to ensure that a rights profile is granted to all users?
    1. /etc/default/rbac
    2. /etc/security/policy.conf
    3. /etc/security/priv_names
    4. /etc/security/prof_attr
    5. /var/security/policy.conf

  338. Which command assign the profile of disk manager to the user jdoe who is associated with the role of helper?
    1. profiles -a -P "disk manager" jdoe
    2. profmod -A jdoe
    3. rolemod -A jdoe
    4. rolemod -d -m "disk manager" jdoe
    5. usermod -P "disk manager" helper

  339. Which file must be edited to assign the Desktop Configuration Rights Profile to all users?
    1. /etc/default/rbac
    2. /etc/pam.d/rbac
    3. /etc/rbac/default.cfg
    4. /etc/security/policy.conf
    5. /etc/user_attr

  340. Which statement is false?
    1. Entries separated by tabs rather than spaces in /etc/syslog.conf are not processed.
    2. logger -p local0.info "This is a test message" is a command with valid syntax.
    3. svcadm refresh svc:/system/system-log:default is a command with valid syntax.
    4. The pfinstall command tests installation profiles.
    5. The lockstart command reports kernel lock and profiling statistics.

  341. Which command enables TCP tracing for all services started by inetd?
    1. inetadm -M tcp_trace=TRUE
    2. inetadm -p tcp_trace
    3. svcadm enable svc:network/inetd
    4. svcadm enable svc:network/inetd:tcptrace
    5. svccfg network/inetd tcp_trace=TRUE

  342. Which line in a shell script will add an entry into the log file at the facility local1 and the level info?
    1. logger -p local1.info "message"
    2. logger -t local1.info "message"
    3. logupd -p local1.info "message"
    4. logupd -t local1.info "message"
    5. syslog -p local1.info "message"

  343. Which statement is true about levels of severity in the /etc/syslog.conf file?
    1. All messages at all levels are actioned.
    2. Messages that are generated at only that level are actioned.
    3. Messages that are generated at that level and above are actioned.
    4. Messages that are generated at that level and below are actioned.
    5. Messages that are generated at that level are ignored.

  344. Which is a valid database sources for the printers entry in the name service switch file?
    1. ldap
    2. nfs
    3. nis
    4. nisplus
    5. samba

  345. Given the following entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file
    hosts:     nis [UNAVAIL=continue] dns [NOTFOUND=return] files
    what happens when a host is contacted and the NIS database could not be found or contacted?
    1. Contact the DNS database. If the host could not be resolved by DNS give up in the attempt to resolve the hostname.
    2. Nothing; the syntax is incorrect.
    3. The DNS database is checked. If the host could not be resolved by DNS give up in the attempt to resolve the hostname.
    4. The DNS database is checked. If the host could not be resolved by DNS local files are checked.
    5. The system will try again after the default timeout for host resolution..

  346. Which are the databases cached by the Name Service Cache Daemon?
    1. auth_attr and group
    2. auth_attr, group, and ipnodes
    3. group and ipnodes
    4. ipnodes, and netmasks
    5. ipnodes, netmasks, and shadow

  347. Which command is used to check that the DNS service is being accessed to resolve hostname and IP address information instead of the NIS service?
    1. dig
    2. getent
    3. nslookup
    4. ping
    5. ypcat

  348. Which files are created by the ldapclient command?
    1. /etc/ldap_client_cred and /etc/nsswitch.conf
    2. /etc/nsswitch.conf, /var/ldap/ldap_client_cred, and /var/ldap/ldap_client_file
    3. /etc/nsswitch.conf, /var/ldap/ldap_client_cred, and /var/ldap/resolv.conf
    4. /var/ldap/ldap_client_cred and /var/ldap/ldap_client_file
    5. /var/ldap/ldap_client_cred and /var/ldap/resolv.conf

  349. Which file contains the name of the proxy account used by an LDAP client when it binds to the LDAP Server?
    1. /etc/nsswitch.conf
    2. /etc/resolv.conf
    3. /var/ldap/ldap_client_cred
    4. /var/ldap/ldap_client_file
    5. /var/ldap/resolv.conf

  350. Which is name of file that contains the list networks or hosts allowed to access the NIS server?
    1. /etc/defaultdomain
    2. /etc/nsswitch.conf
    3. /etc/resolv.conf
    4. /etc/yp/securenets
    5. /var/yp/securenets

  351. Which process runs on all hosts in a NIS domain?
    1. ypbind
    2. ypcat
    3. ypserv
    4. ypset
    5. ypxfrd

  352. Given the following output from the ifconfig -a command
    lo0: flags=2001000849<UP,LOOPBACK,RUNNING,MULTICAST,IPv4,VIRTUAL>
     mtu 8232 index 1
            inet 127.0.0.1 netmask ff000000 
    hme0: flags=1004843<UP,BROADCAST,RUNNING,MULTICAST,DHCP,IPv4> mtu 1500 index 2
            inet 192.168.0.101 netmask ffffff00 broadcast 192.168.0.255
            ether 0:2:b5:3c:a5:c5
    Four non-global zones are added to this system, each configured with access to the hme0 interface. Which statement is true about the hme interface?
    1. Each interface will be called hme0:1 in each non-global zone.
    2. It is not possible access to the same interface in more than one zone.
    3. The interface is only accessible in the global zone.
    4. The interface will be called hme0 in each non-global zone..
    5. The interface will be called hme0:4 in the fourth zone.

  353. When accessing a NIS client with the following command
    su - jill
    the system returns
    No Directory!
    what is the probable cause of being unable to access the account?
    1. The home directory of user jill is not being shared from the NIS master.
    2. The NIS client is not accepting login requests.
    3. The NIS server cannot find the NIS map.
    4. The NIS server is not resolving login requests.
    5. The user jill does not exist in the NIS maps.

  354. Which daemons are used to control zone operations?
    1. zoneadmd and zonecfg
    2. zoneadmd, zonecfg, and zoned
    3. zoneadmd, zonecfg, and zsched
    4. zoneadmd and zsched
    5. zoned and zsched

  355. Which command interactively allows adding a new file system to the zone's configuration?
    1. zoneadd -i
    2. zoneadm -u
    3. zoneadm -z
    4. zonecfg -u
    5. zonecfg -z

  356. In which directory does the command zonecfg saves the zone configuration file when commit is executed?
    1. /dev/zones
    2. /etc/zone
    3. /etc/zonecfg
    4. /etc/zones
    5. /var/zones

  357. Which command displays the master server for each NIS map?
    1. ypbind
    2. ypcat -s
    3. ypmatch
    4. ypserv
    5. ypwitch -m

  358. Given the output of the command zoneadm list -iv below
      ID NAME             STATUS         PATH                             
    0 global              running         /                                
    - apache-zone         installed       /export/apache-zone
    what will be the zone id of the zone apache-zone after the command zoneadm -z apache-zone boot -s is executed?
    1. The zone apache-zone will have a zone id of 0.
    2. The zone apache-zone will have a zone id of 1.
    3. The zone apache-zone will have a zone id of s.
    4. The zone apache-zone will have a zone id specified by the zonecfg, not shown here.
    5. The zone apache-zone will not have a zone id because it was not specified in the zoneadm command.

  359. Which is a network service which should be running on a JumpStart boot server?
    1. FTP
    2. LDAP
    3. NIS
    4. TFTP
    5. UDP

  360. Which services are found in a JumpStart configuration?
    1. Boot and Initialization
    2. Boot and Installation
    3. Configuration and Initialization
    4. Configuration and Installation
    5. Installation and Support

  361. What is the function of the JumpStart check script?
    1. It ensures that clients can see the JumpStart server.
    2. It generates the rules.ok file read by clients and looks for errors in client profile files.
    3. It looks for duplicate lines in the sysdicfg file.
    4. It looks for syntax errors in the rules.ok file and in the in the sysdicfg file.
    5. It validates naming services entries for clients.

  362. Given the line in the /export/config/rules file of a JumpStart server below
    hostname sales1 && memsize 512MB-1024MB  - sales_config additions
    which statement is true about this line?
    1. The begin script is called additions.
    2. The begin script is called sales_config.
    3. The class file is called additions.
    4. The finish script is called sales_config.
    5. The two ampersands (&&) indicate the hostname and the memory size conditions must be met.

  363. Which is a limitation of the Flash utility?
    1. Flash archives can only be created from a single slice.
    2. Flash can only create archives smaller than 2Gbytes.
    3. Flash can only create archives smaller than 8Gbytes.
    4. Flash currently does not support metadevices or non-UFS file systems.
    5. Systems installed from Flash Archives can not be modified.

  364. Which command displays information about Flash archives?
    1. flar create
    2. flar info
    3. flash_archive
    4. ls -l /etc/flar
    5. ls -l /export/flash

  365. Which command can be used to determine the DHCP Macros required to support a PXE Intel JumpStart client?
    1. add_install_client
    2. dhcpconfig
    3. dhtadm
    4. flar create
    5. setup_install_server

  366. Which vendor options are needed to be added to the macro to assign a set of DHCP vendor options to the client options to support the installation when configuring a Solaris 10 JumpStart server to support Intel based systems?
    1. NFSserv and SconfigPTH
    2. NFSserv and SrootIP4
    3. NFSserv and SsysidcfgPTH
    4. SconfigPTH, SrootIP4 and SsysidcfgPTH
    5. SconfigPTH and SrootIP4

  367. Which software group should be installed for software development?
    1. Core System Support Software Group
    2. End User Solaris Software Group
    3. Entire Solaris Software Group
    4. Developer Software Group
    5. Reduced Network Support Software Group

  368. What is the minimum amount of memory a system needs to install Solaris 10?
    1. 32 Mbytes
    2. 64 Mbytes
    3. 128 Mbytes
    4. 256 Mbytes
    5. 512 Mbytes

  369. Which is not a name of a Solaris 10 software group?
    1. Core System Support Software Group
    2. End User Solaris Software Group
    3. Entire Solaris Software Group
    4. Developer Software Group
    5. Reduced Network Support Software Group

  370. Which is not a valid method for upgrading Solaris 10?
    1. Interactive with a GUI
    2. Interactive with a text installer
    3. Live upgrade
    4. Network cloning
    5. WAN boot

  371. Which command is used to uninstall a package?
    1. patchrm
    2. pkgdel
    3. pkgrm
    4. rm -r
    5. uninstall

  372. For which task can the pkgchk command be used?
    1. To check a package out of /var/adm/spool to control the version number by tracking changes.
    2. To check the accuracy of installed files of a package.
    3. To check the client's mount points.
    4. To check the content of the packages that have not yet been installed.
    5. To check whether the data in the package file is corrupted.

  373. Which statement is false?
    1. The patchadd command applies a patch package to the system.
    2. The patchadd command can find out which patches are currently installed on the system.
    3. The patchadd command creates a backup of the files being patched.
    4. The patchrm command attempts to restore the previously saved files.
    5. Use patchadd -Z to add packages only to the current zone.

  374. Which condition will allow the patchadd command to install a patch?
    1. A patch with the same base code, but higher revision number is already installed.
    2. An installed patch that makes this patch obsolete.
    3. The digital signature on a patch being unable to be verify the keystore in use and the signature on the patch.
    4. The patch being installed depends on another patch which is not yet installed.
    5. The patch version is not the latest version.

  375. Which command is used to verify that a package has been correctly installed?
    1. patcheck
    2. pkgchk
    3. pkgdel
    4. pkginfo
    5. pkgstat

  376. Which command is used to convert a package format to be available for downloading?
    1. pkgchk
    2. pkgconv
    3. pkgfmt
    4. pkgformat
    5. pkgtrans

  377. Where are the system configuration variables that determine the start up system configuration stored?
    1. In NVRAM
    2. In the /etc directory
    3. In the Master Boot Record
    4. In the OpenBoot PROM
    5. In the /var directory

  378. Which is performed during the Boot PROM phase of the system start up?
    1. Executing POST and loading of bootblk
    2. Kernel initialization
    3. Kernel initialization and loading of bootblk
    4. Kernel initialization and loading of ufsboot
    5. Running /etc/init

  379. Which is the correct order for booting a SPARC machine?
    1. Executing POST, loading bootblk, loading ufsboot, running init, starting svc-startd
    2. Executing POST, loading ufsboot, loading bootblk, running init, starting svc-startd
    3. Executing POST, loading bootblk, loading ufsboot, starting svc-startd, running init
    4. Executing POST, loading ufsboot, running init, starting svc-startd
    5. Executing POST, running init, loading bootblk, loading ufsboot, starting svc-startd

  380. When a SPARC system is hung, how does one get to the ok prompt?
    1. Enter ESC
    2. Enter Stop-A
    3. Enter Stop-D
    4. Enter Stop-N
    5. Shut the power down

  381. Which is the correct order for booting an Intel based machine?
    1. BIOS, Boot Programs, Kernel Initialization, running init
    2. BIOS, Boot Programs, loading bootblk, running init
    3. Boot Programs, BIOS, Kernel Initialization, running init
    4. Boot Programs, BIOS, loading bootblk, running init
    5. Boot Programs, BIOS, running init, loading bootblk, loading ufsboot

  382. Which is responsible for starting svc.stard?
    1. bootblk
    2. init
    3. svcadm
    4. svcs
    5. ufsboot

  383. Which will change the default run level of a system if the milestone property is set in svc.startd?
    1. Change the value of the initdefault entry in the inittab file.
    2. Change the value of the runlevel entry in the inittab file.
    3. Run the init command.
    4. Run the initdefault command.
    5. Run the svcadm -d command.

  384. Which command will change the value of an OpenBoot configuration variable at the ok prompt?
    1. eeprom
    2. set
    3. setvar
    4. setenv
    5. svcadm

  385. Which command creates a device alias that will persist across power cycles?
    1. devalias
    2. nvalias
    3. okalias
    4. set
    5. setalias

  386. Which command will not change the run level of a running Solaris system?
    1. halt
    2. init
    3. poweroff
    4. runlevel
    5. shutdown

  387. What is the effect of pressing the STOP-D key combination when turning on a SPARC system?
    1. It displays the GUI interface to reset the NVRAM parameters
    2. It puts the firmware in the diagnostic mode.
    3. It resets the NVRAM parameters back to their default values.
    4. It resets the NVRAM parameters back to their factory values.
    5. It shuts down the system.

  388. Which statement is true for an Intel based system?
    1. BIOS loads the MBR program mboot.
    2. The program mboot starts ufsboot.
    3. The program pboot loads the program mboot.
    4. The program pboot starts sysboot.
    5. The program ufsboot starts mboot.

  389. What will happen if the following is executed at the OpenBoot prompt?
    setenv auto-boot? false
    auto-boot? = false
    1. Nothing, the syntax is incorrect.
    2. The system will boot into single user mode.
    3. The system will boot only to the ok prompt.
    4. The system will not boot until the variable is set to true.
    5. The system will require a password to boot.

  390. Which utility finds the amount of free disk space?
    1. df
    2. diff
    3. diff -k
    4. du -k
    5. find -k

  391. Which command summarizes file system ownership by displaying the number of blocks currently owned by each user?
    1. df
    2. diff
    3. find -k
    4. largefile
    5. quot

  392. Which file systems are memory based virtual file systems?
    1. CacheFS, NFS, UDF and UFS.
    2. CacheFS, ProcFS and TMPFS.
    3. NFS, ProcFS and TMPFS.
    4. NFS, ProcFS and UFS.
    5. ProcFS and UDF.

  393. Which directory contains the files related to physical devices?
    1. /device
    2. /devices
    3. /drivers
    4. /etc
    5. /var/dev

  394. Which directory contains the configuration files?
    1. /conf
    2. /configure
    3. /devices
    4. /etc
    5. /var/conf

  395. Which type of link can span across file systems?
    1. Directory
    2. Hard
    3. Loop
    4. Missing
    5. Symbolic

  396. Which command cannot be used on a mounted file system?
    1. du
    2. fsck
    3. largefile
    4. ls
    5. quot

  397. Which file system controls files in the /devices directory?
    1. devfs
    2. devicefs
    3. HSFS
    4. MNTFS
    5. ProcFS

  398. Which statement is true?
    1. A hard link can be created to a file that does not exist.
    2. A hard link can only point to a file that is not a directory.
    3. A hard link has a different inode number from the file that it points to.
    4. A symbolic link cannot be created to a file that does not exist.
    5. The ln command creates symbolic links by default.

  399. Which is not a disk based file system?
    1. HSFS
    2. PCFS
    3. ProcFS
    4. UDF
    5. UFS

  400. What is the maximum size of a large UFS file system on a 32-bit system?
    1. 1 Gbyte
    2. 2 Gbytes
    3. 128 Gbytes
    4. 1 Tbyte
    5. 2 Tbytes

  401. Under which directory will the SMF components be on a newly installed Solaris 10 system?
    1. /bin
    2. /etc
    3. /lib
    4. /smf
    5. /var

  402. The fsck command was run on /var. The system reports allocated, but unreferenced files, and they are reconnected. After the system has been booted, in which directory will the reconnected files be found?
    1. /lost+found
    2. /tmp
    3. /unreferenced
    4. /var
    5. /var/lost+found

  403. To which of the following does the file /etc/path_to_inst map the instance device names?
    1. Logical device names
    2. Network device names
    3. Physical device names
    4. Pseudo device names
    5. Virtual device names

  404. Which refers to slice number 3 on a disk with a direct IDE controller on an Intel based system with logical controller number 0 and drive number 0?
    1. /dev/dsk/c0d0t0s3
    2. /dev/rdsk/c0d0s3
    3. /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s3
    4. /dev/rdsk/s3d0c0
    5. /dev/rdsk/s3t0c0d0

  405. Which refers to slice number 2 on a disk with a direct IDE controller on a SPARC system with logical controller number 0 and drive number 0?
    1. /dev/dsk/c0d0t0s2
    2. /dev/rdsk/c0d0s2
    3. /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s2
    4. /dev/rdsk/s2d0c0
    5. /dev/rdsk/s2t0c0d0

  406. Which contains the procedures used to boot the system?
    1. Boot block
    2. Disk label
    3. Inode
    4. Superblock
    5. Volume label

  407. Which step should be taken for a Solaris 10 system to recognize a newly added device?
    1. Edit the /etc/path_to_inst file.
    2. Edit the /etc/vfstab file.
    3. Reboot the system.
    4. Run the devfsadm command.
    5. Run the prtconf command.

  408. Which contains information about the file system?
    1. Boot block
    2. Disk label
    3. Inode
    4. Superblock
    5. Volume label

  409. Which command will list the file systems currently mounted on the system?
    1. /etc/mnttab
    2. /etc/mounted
    3. /etc/vfstab
    4. /etc/path_to_inst
    5. /var/vfstab

  410. Which file system will be unmounted with the unmountall command?
    1. /etc
    2. /proc
    3. /usr
    4. /var/adm
    5. /var/run

  411. A floppy was mounted with the following command
    mount -F pcfs /dev/diskette /floppy
    which command will unmouont the floppy?
    1. umount /dev/diskette
    2. umount -F
    3. unmount /dev/diskette
    4. unmount /floppy
    5. unmount -F pcfs /floppy

  412. Which is a valid Solaris 10 command?
    1. fsck /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s1
    2. fsck /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s1
    3. mount /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s1 /dir
    4. mount /mntpt /dev/rdsk/c0t0d0s1
    5. mountall -F /etc/vfstab

  413. Which command will manually mount read only a CD-ROM with an HSFS file system residing on slice 1 of the CD-ROM as the slave device to the primary IDE channel?
    1. mount -F hsfs /cdrom
    2. mount -F hsfs -o /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s0
    3. mount -F hsfs -o ro /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s0 /cdrom
    4. mount -o hsfs /dev/dsk/c0t1d0s0
    5. mount -o hsfs /dev/rdsk/c0t1d0s0 /cdrom

  414. Which command shows the mapping between the instance device names and physical device names?
    1. cat /var/adm/log
    2. less /etc/path_to_inst
    3. prtconf
    4. prtconf -v
    5. sysdef -v

  415. Given the following line from the password file
    jsmith:x:500:600:Jane Smith:/export/home/jsmith:/bin/tcsh
    what would be the value of the user's UID?
    1. 500
    2. 600
    3. /export/home/jsmith
    4. Jane Smith
    5. x

  416. Given the following line from the /etc/shadow file
    jdoe:dkabcdfj5432FOurwQ:16983::90::::
    what does this entry indicate?
    1. No password is required for this account.
    2. The account will expire in 90 days.
    3. The account will expire in 90 hours.
    4. The password is valid for up to 90 days.
    5. The user is warned 90 hours before the password expires.

  417. What is the maximum number of character that an username can contain?
    1. 2
    2. 4
    3. 6
    4. 8
    5. 255

  418. What is the maximum number of secondary groups an user can belong to?
    1. 2
    2. 4
    3. 6
    4. 8
    5. 15

  419. Given the following line from the /etc/shadow file
    jdoe:*LK*fjdk54321trewQ:14983::::::
    what does this entry indicate?
    1. No password is required for this account.
    2. The account has been locked.
    3. The account will expire in 14983 days.
    4. The account will expire in 14983 hours.
    5. The password will expire in 14983 hours.

  420. What is the best way to remove an user from the system without deleting their files?
    1. Change the user's account name.
    2. Delete the user's home directory.
    3. Rename the user's home directory.
    4. Run the userdel command.
    5. Run the userdel -r command.

  421. What is the highest value an UID can have in Solaris 10?
    1. 256
    2. 32,767
    3. 60,000
    4. 16,777,216
    5. 2,147,483,647

  422. To which users should the UID of 0 be assigned?
    1. Any user account.
    2. No one.
    3. Only to root.
    4. Only to root and sudo.
    5. Only to root and wheel.

  423. Which file gets executed first when logging in using the Bourne shell?
    1. /etc/cshrc
    2. /etc/profile
    3. /etc/shell
    4. /etc/shells
    5. /etc/skel

  424. Which file contains the encrypted password?
    1. /etc/crypt
    2. /etc/passwd
    3. /etc/password
    4. /etc/profile
    5. /etc/shadow

  425. The default values for the useradd command are stored in which file?
    1. /etc/default
    2. /etc/default/useradd
    3. /etc/passwd
    4. /etc/sadm/defadduser
    5. /usr/sadm/defadduser

  426. Which file logs all attempts to switch to the root user by using the su command?
    1. /etc/adm/log
    2. /etc/adm/sulog
    3. /etc/adm/superuser
    4. /var/adm/log
    5. /var/adm/sulog

  427. Which command will change the group ownership of a file?
    1. chmod
    2. chown
    3. chowner
    4. group
    5. passwd

  428. Given the information below regarding the file sun what can the user student, who is a member of the group class, do to the file?  
    -rw-r-----  2 red     class       6983 Feb 16 01:10 sun
    1. Append to the file.
    2. Delete the file.
    3. Execute the file.
    4. Modify the contents of the file.
    5. View the contents of the file.

  429. Which command will set the setgid permission on a file?
    1. chgid
    2. chgrp
    3. chmod
    4. setgid
    5. setuid

  430. Given the partial output from the ls -l command below  
    -rwsr----t
    what are the octal permissions set on the file?
    1. 0740
    2. 0741
    3. 4741
    4. 5741
    5. 7771

  431. An user listed in which file will be able to log in remotely to the system without having to supply a password?
    1. /etc/hosts
    2. /etc/pam.d/allow
    3. /etc/cron.d/cron.allow
    4. /etc/rhosts
    5. $HOME/.rlogin

  432. Which statement is true?
    1. Directories that have their sticky bit set compromise the security of the directory.
    2. Shell scripts that have their setgid permission set enhance the security of the system.
    3. Shell scripts that have their setuid permission set enhance the security of the system.
    4. The configuration file for sshd is /etc/sshd/sshd_config.
    5. The sshd daemon requires the sticky bit to be et on the configuration file /etc/sshd/sshd_config.

  433. Which is the default name of the administrative account in Solaris 10?
    1. admin
    2. administrator
    3. root
    4. superuser
    5. wheel

  434. In which file is name of the log file that logs all attempts to use the su command set?
    1. /etc/adm/log
    2. /etc/adm/su
    3. /etc/adm/sulog
    4. /etc/default/su
    5. /var/adm/sulog

  435. Which command displays information about the oldest three reboots that the system remembers?
    1. cat reboot
    2. last reboot | head -3
    3. last reboot | tail -3
    4. who -r | head -3
    5. who -r | tail -3

  436. Which command updates process information on a periodic basis?
    1. prstat
    2. prt
    3. ps
    4. ptree
    5. top

  437. When the command ps -l is run, under the S column which represents that a process is running?
    1. O
    2. R
    3. S
    4. T
    5. Z

  438. Which command terminates only the process with a process ID of 21345?
    1. kill 21345
    2. killall
    3. pgrep 21345
    4. pkill 21345
    5. ptree 23145

  439. Which command terminates only the process with a process ID of 21345 and let it clean up after itself?
    1. kill 21345
    2. kill -9 21345
    3. pgrep 21345
    4. pkill 21345
    5. sigterm 23145

  440. Which command displays all the processes that have up in the process argument string?
    1. prstat up
    2. ps -a up
    3. ps -ef | grep up
    4. ps -l up
    5. ptree up

  441. Which command schedules commands to be executed repeatedly?
    1. at
    2. batch
    3. cron
    4. crontab
    5. run

  442. Which entry in the crontab file will the script /etc/cron.d/check every Sunday and Wednesday at 7:05 in the morning?
    1. 1,4 * * 7 5 /etc/cron.d/check
    2. 5 7 * * 0,3 /etc/cron.d/check
    3. 5 7 * * 1,4 /etc/cron.d/check
    4. 7 5 * * 0,3 /etc/cron.d/check
    5. 7 5 * * 1,4 /etc/cron.d/check

  443. Which statement is true if both the cron.allow and the cron.deny files are missing from the Solaris 10 system?
    1. All users have access to the crontab command to manage all crontab files.
    2. All users have permission to use crontab command to manage their own crontab file.
    3. Only root can access to the crontab command to manage all crontab files.
    4. Users can only delete their crontab file, but they cannot edit it.
    5. Users can only edit their crontab file, but they cannot delete it.

  444. Which statement is true?
    1. If neither cron.allow nor cron.deny exist, only root can access the crontab command.
    2. If neither users.allow nor users.deny exist, only root can access the crontab command.
    3. If neither users.allow nor users.deny exist, only root can access the printer on the system.
    4. If neither users.allow nor users.deny exist, only root can install new software on the system.
    5. Only cron.allow is installed on the system at installation.

  445. Which command is used to configure the LP print service?
    1. lp
    2. lpadmin
    3. lpconfig
    4. lpr
    5. lpsched

  446. What is the name of the listener service for print requests?
    1. http-listen
    2. http-listener
    3. ipd
    4. ipp-listener
    5. lplisten

  447. Which SMF command will restart lpsched?
    1. svcadm enable src://application/print/lpsched
    2. svcadm enable svc://application/print/lpsched
    3. svcadm enable svc://application/print/server
    4. svcadm start src://application/print/lpsched
    5. svcs enable src://application/print/server

  448. Which tar command append contents to the archive?
    1. tar avf
    2. tar cvf
    3. tar rvf
    4. tar tvf
    5. tar xvf

  449. Which command has a built in capability to perform incremental backups?
    1. cpio
    2. dd
    3. pax
    4. tar
    5. ufsdump

  450. Which statement is false?
    1. A cpio backup can span more than one tape.
    2. A dd backup can span more than one tape.
    3. A pax backup can span more than one tape.
    4. A ufsdump backup can span more than one tape.
    5. The maximum number of tapes that can be used with a tar archive is one.

  451. Which tape device does ufsdump use by default?
    1. /dev/diskette
    2. /dev/mt/0
    3. /dev/mt/0
    4. /dev/rmt/0
    5. /dev/rmt/1

  452. Given the weekly backup schedule below
    Mondaydump level 1tape1
    Tuesdaydump level 2tape2
    Wednesdaydump level 3tape3
    Thursdaydump level 4tape4
    Fridaydump level 0tape0
    and the system crashed late on Tuesday after that day's backup. Which set of tapes will restore the data as fully as possible?
    1. tape0
    2. tape0, tape1
    3. tape0, tape1, tape2
    4. tape0, tape1, tape2, tape3
    5. tape0, tape1, tape2, tape3, tape4

  453. Given the weekly backup schedule below
    Mondaydump level 1tape1
    Tuesdaydump level 1tape2
    Wednesdaydump level 1tape3
    Thursdaydump level 2tape4
    Fridaydump level 0tape0
    and the system crashed late on Wednesday after that day's backup. Which set of tapes will restore the data as fully as possible?
    1. tape0
    2. tape0, tape1
    3. tape0, tape2
    4. tape0, tape3
    5. tape3

  454. Which will back up a file system without putting the system into single user mode and unmounting the file system?
    1. Use the fssnap to take a snapshot.
    2. Use the fssnap to take a snapshot and the backup the snapshot with the cpio command.
    3. Use the fssnapshot to take a snapshot and the backup the snapshot with the tar command.
    4. Use the fssnapshot to take a snapshot and the backup the snapshot with the ufsdump command.
    5. Use the ufsdump command.

  455. Which two files does ufsdump use to store and retrieve information?
    1. /dev/diskette and /etc/dumpdates
    2. /dev/dump and /etc/dumpinfo
    3. /dev/dump and /etc/fstab
    4. /etc/dumpdates and /etc/fstab
    5. /etc/dumpdates and /etc/vfstab

  456. Which file is created by the ufsrestore command?
    1. diskrestore
    2. dumpdates
    3. restoresymtable
    4. ufsrestore.log
    5. ufssymtable

  457. Which is not necessary to restore the / file system when the disk crash and a new disk is added to the system?
    1. Boot the system from a CD or the network.
    2. Issue the fsck command.
    3. Issue the init 6 command.
    4. Issue the installboot command.
    5. Mount the /dev/diskette device.

  458. Which is the most appropriate back up strategy for a company that is closed on Sundays?
    1. Full back up every morning.
    2. Full back up every Sunday.
    3. Full back up every Sunday and nightly incremental backups on all other days.
    4. Incremental backups every Sunday and on holidays.
    5. Nightly incremental backups Monday through Saturday.

  459. What does 127.0.0.1 represent?
    1. Ethernet address
    2. Hardware address
    3. Loopback Internet address
    4. MAC
    5. Physical address

  460. Which statement is true about a MAC address?
    1. A computer can only have one MAC address.
    2. A MAC address is a 32-bit number.
    3. A MAC address is a 64-bit number.
    4. An IP datagram header is a 64-bit buffer.
    5. When an Ethernet card is replaced, the MAC address of the computer also changes.

  461. Which protocol provides reliable end-to-end communication?
    1. IP
    2. RELIABLE
    3. TCP
    4. TRANSPORT
    5. UDP

  462. Which forwards IP datagram packets from one network to another?
    1. Bridge
    2. Buffer
    3. Hub
    4. Router
    5. Switch

  463. Which file contains the IP address associated with a hostname?
    1. /etc/address
    2. /etc/ethernet
    3. /etc/inet/hostname
    4. /etc/inet/hosts
    5. /etc/resolv.conf

  464. At which layer does a router operate?
    1. Application layer
    2. Data link layer
    3. Internet layer
    4. Network layer
    5. Transport layer

  465. Which command will check whether a remote host is reachable?
    1. dig
    2. ifconfig
    3. netstat
    4. ping
    5. snoop

  466. Which command will display the kind of information being exchanged between two systems?
    1. dig
    2. ifconfig
    3. netstat
    4. ping
    5. snoop

  467. Which statement is true?
    1. Once a SMF service has been enabled or disabled, the status change information goes into a configuration repository and persists across reboots.
    2. Ports are defined by the Physical Layer.
    3. The arp command is used to dump the contents of UDP packets.
    4. The dump command is used to dump the contents of TCP/IP packets.
    5. The Transport Layer is the highest of the OSI seven layer model.

  468. Which layer is responsible for establishing end-to-end communications between two machines?
    1. Application layer
    2. Data link layer
    3. Network layer
    4. Presentation layer
    5. Transport layer

  469. Which file does a client use to determine which network service to use to get network information on a system that is running NIS?
    1. /etc/nsswtich.conf
    2. /etc/nsswtich.dns
    3. /etc/nsswtich.ldap
    4. /etc/nsswtich.nisplus
    5. /etc/resolv.conf

  470. Which product is shipped with Solaris 10?
    1. BIND 8.x
    2. BIND 9.x
    3. BIND 10.x
    4. DNS 9.x
    5. DNS 10.x

  471. Which are the four authorization classes of principals in NIS+?
    1. all, group, owner and nobody
    2. all, group, owner and world
    3. execute, nobody, read and write
    4. group, nobody, owner and world
    5. group, nobody, principal and world

  472. What is the name of the DNS daemon?
    1. domaind
    2. dnsd
    3. named
    4. nisd
    5. nscd

  473. Which is not available on Solaris?
    1. Active Directory
    2. DNS
    3. LDAP
    4. NIS
    5. NIS+

  474. Which is true about the NIS information database?
    1. They are called new files.
    2. They are called objects.
    3. They are called tables.
    4. They are text files.
    5. They have ndbm files called maps.

  475. Which provides a caching mechanism for the most common name service requests, including NIS?
    1. cached
    2. dnsd
    3. named
    4. nisd
    5. nscd

  476. Which command will convert information in the source file of a NIS server to the ndbm map?
    1. make
    2. makedbm
    3. makendbm
    4. ypconv
    5. ypserv

  477. Which command is used to make a NIS slave server?
    1. nisadm -s
    2. nisdm -s
    3. yp
    4. ypinit -s
    5. ypserv

  478. Which statement is true?
    1. A map created on a primary server will automatically be pushed to the secondary servers.
    2. A map created on a secondary server will automatically be pushed on to all other secondary servers.
    3. Solaris supports the coexistence of a native LDAP client and a NIS client on the same machine.
    4. The command resolver is used by the client to resolve a domain name into an IP address.
    5. The command resolver is used by the client to resolve an IP address into a domain name.

  479. Which command displays available swap space?
    1. prtconf
    2. prtswap
    3. swap -a
    4. swap -l
    5. swap -s

  480. Which command lists the current swap area on the system?
    1. prtconf
    2. prtswap
    3. swap -a
    4. swap -l
    5. swap -s

  481. Which file should be modified so added swap swap will be activated automatically each the system boots up?
    1. /etc/addswap
    2. /etc/prtswap
    3. /etc/swap
    4. /etc/swapadd
    5. /etc/vfstab

  482. To which file would the share command be added to share a resource?
    1. /etc/default/nfs
    2. /etc/dfs/dfstab
    3. /etc/dfs/share
    4. /etc/dfs/sharetab
    5. /etc/vfstab

  483. What is the name of the daemon used by NFS 4.0?
    1. nfsd
    2. nfslogd
    3. nisd
    4. shared
    5. statd

  484. Which command displays the shared resources on a local server?
    1. dfsshare
    2. dfsshares
    3. nfsshare
    4. share
    5. svcs network/share

  485. Which map file contains all the direct and indirect names?
    1. /etc/auto_all
    2. /etc/auto_direct
    3. /etc/auto_indirect
    4. /etc/auto_master
    5. /etc/auto_share

  486. Given the following entry in the /etc/auto_master file
    /share auto_share
    which statement is true?
    1. All files are shared.
    2. The name of the indirect map file is auto_share, and all path names and points are relative to the /share directory.
    3. The /share directory on the client is mapped to the auto_share directory on the server.
    4. The /share directory on the server is mapped to the auto_share directory on the client.
    5. The syntax is incorrect.

  487. What is the name of the daemon that handles all mounting requests from the autofs service?
    1. automountd
    2. mountd
    3. nfsd
    4. nisd
    5. portmap

  488. Which statement is true about core files and crash dumps?
    1. A file named PID.core is created when there is a core dump.
    2. A file named PID.savecore is created when there is a core dump.
    3. A file named PID.vmcore is created when there is a core dump.
    4. A file named unix.dump_sequence_number is created when there is a core dump.
    5. A file named unix.process_name.PID is created when there is a core dump.

  489. Which command specifies the name and location of core files produced by abnormally terminating processes?
    1. coreadm
    2. crashadm
    3. dump
    4. dumpadm
    5. locatecore

  490. What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID 5?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 4
    5. 5

  491. Which is the best way to configure volumes for mission-critical data when performance is not an issue?
    1. RAID 3
    2. RAID 3 Stripe
    3. RAID 5 Mirror
    4. RAID 5 Stripe
    5. Stripe

  492. Which is the best way to configure volumes when read and write performance is most critical and data loss is not critical?
    1. RAID 1 Mirror
    2. RAID 3 Mirror
    3. RAID 5 Mirror
    4. RAID 6 Mirror
    5. Stripe

  493. Which provides data redundancy by using parity?
    1. Hot spare
    2. Hot swap
    3. RAID 1
    4. RAID 1+0
    5. RAID 5

  494. What is the term for a collection of spare slices that stand ready to replace a failed slice on a RAID 5 volume called?
    1. Backup set
    2. Disk set
    3. Hot spare pool
    4. Redundant slice
    5. Spare slice

  495. What is the maximum number of soft partitions that can be created on a disk?
    1. 2
    2. 4
    3. 8
    4. 16
    5. No limit

  496. Which is the default read policy for a RAID 1 volume?
    1. First
    2. Geometric
    3. Parallel
    4. Round Robin
    5. Serial

  497. Which volume writes data on components simultaneously?
    1. Concatenation volume
    2. Logical volume
    3. Serial volume
    4. Square volume
    5. Stripe volume

  498. What is the maximum number of logical volumes a SVM can support per disk set?
    1. 1024
    2. 2048
    3. 4096
    4. 8192
    5. No limit

  499. What is the maximum number of submirrors a SVM can support in a RAID 1 volume?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 4
    4. 8
    5. No limit

  500. Which command adds submirrors to a mirror, grows metadevices, and grows soft partitions?
    1. addmirror
    2. metacreate
    3. metainit
    4. metasync
    5. metattach

  501. Given the following entry from the auth_attr database
    solaris.admin.:::Solaris Administration::help=SolarisAdmin.html
    which statement is true?
    1. It authorizes an user to administer a Solaris system.
    2. It authorizes an user to grant any admin rights to any user.
    3. It grants a system administrator all the rights to the operating system.
    4. It is not any authorization; it is a header that may be used in a GUI.
    5. The syntax is incorrect.

  502. Which RBAC database assigns roles to the users?
    1. auth_attr
    2. exec_attr
    3. prof_attr
    4. user_attr
    5. user_rbac

  503. Which RBAC database assigns privileged operations, such as commands with security attributes to the rights profiles?
    1. auth_attr
    2. exec_attr
    3. prof_attr
    4. user_attr
    5. user_rbac

  504. Which is not a database that supports RBAC?
    1. /etc/security/auth_attr
    2. /etc/security/exec_attr
    3. /etc/security/prof_attr
    4. /etc/security/rbac_attr
    5. /etc/user

  505. Which command is used to assign a role to an user?
    1. addrole
    2. roleadd
    3. rolemod
    4. userdel
    5. usermod

  506. Which is not a valid key to specify security attributes in the RBAC exec_attr database?
    1. euid
    2. egid
    3. gid
    4. setuid
    5. uid

  507. Which command is used to manage syslog?
    1. runsyslog
    2. svcs
    3. syslog
    4. syslogconf
    5. syslogd

  508. What is the meaning of the following entry in the syslog.conf file?
    *.alert	*	
    1. Ignore all alert facility messages.
    2. Send all alert level messages to all log files and to the system administrator.
    3. Send all alert level messages to all users.
    4. Send all alert level messages to the system administrator.
    5. The syntax is incorrect.

  509. Which line, added to the syslog.conf file will send user.alert and user.emerg messages to the root user and the jdoe user?
    1. user.alert user.emerg         jdoe root
    2. user.alert user.emerg         jdoe, root
    3. user.alert, user.emerg         jdoe, root
    4. user.alert, user.emerg         'jdoe, root'
    5. user.alert, user.emerg:         jdoe; root

  510. Which statement is true about the RBAC model?
    1. An user cannot assume more than one role at a time.
    2. Assigning more than one profile to a role is not possible.
    3. Assigning more than one role to an user is not possible.
    4. Assigning more than one user to a role is not possible.
    5. It is possible to assign a role to another role.

  511. Which command will set a server that an install client can use for Solaris software to be installed on the client?
    1. add_install_client
    2. add_install_server
    3. setup_install_client
    4. setup_install_server
    5. setup_solaris_client

  512. Which contains the names of begin scripts to be used in a JumpStart installation?
    1. begin
    2. check
    3. chkconfig
    4. rules.ok
    5. sysidcfg

  513. Which method automates the installation of Solaris 10?
    1. Flash archive
    2. JumpStart
    3. Network via NFS
    4. PXE
    5. Solaris installation

  514. Which file is read by the JumpStart program to discover where to find the software installation requirements of the installation client?
    1. begin
    2. check
    3. profile
    4. rules.ok
    5. sysidcfg

  515. Which script is run to validate some of the file to be used in a JumpStart installation?
    1. begin
    2. check
    3. profile
    4. rules.ok
    5. sysidcfg

  516. Which are required for a PXE installation?
    1. DHCP Sever.
    2. DHCP Sever and Flash archive.
    3. DHCP Server, Install server, and an installation client machine supporting Intel Preboot Execution Environment.
    4. Flash archive.
    5. Flash archive, Install server, and JumpStart program.

  517. Which is not not a state of a Solaris zone?
    1. Configured
    2. Incomplete
    3. Installed
    4. Running
    5. Sleeping

  518. Which task can be performed with subcommands of the zonecfg utility?
    1. Boot a zone.
    2. Check the zone configuration.
    3. Delete a zone.
    4. Duplicate a zone.
    5. Install a zone.

  519. Which task cannot be performed with subcommands of the zoneadm utility?
    1. Boot a zone.
    2. Check the zone configuration.
    3. Duplicate a zone.
    4. Install a zone.
    5. Uninstall a zone.

  520. Which command will add clients to the install server?
    1. add_install_client
    2. add_install_server
    3. setup_install_client
    4. setup_install_server
    5. setup_solaris_client

  521. Which command checks for file system inconsistencies?
    1. chkconfig
    2. chkdisk
    3. chkfs
    4. fsck
    5. scandsk

  522. Which command will display the OpenBoot PROM revision number?
    1. env
    2. prtconv -a
    3. prtconv -V
    4. prtinfo -c
    5. prtinfo -V

  523. Given the content of the /etc/hosts.equiv file below
    operation
    who can run commands on the system without a password?
    1. All users on the host operation.
    2. All users on the host operation, except root.
    3. Only the user operation.
    4. Only the user operation and root.
    5. No user can access the system without a password.

  524. How many fdisk partitions exist on a VTOC disk of an Intel based system?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 8
    4. 10
    5. 15

  525. Which file contains information about which software groups are installed on the system?
    1. /etc/sadm/system/admin/CLUSTER
    2. /var/sadm/install/admin/CLUSTER
    3. /var/sadm/system/admin/CLUSTER
    4. /var/sadm/system/install/CLUSTER
    5. /var/system/install/CLUSTER

  526. From which file does the last command retrieve its information?
    1. /var/adm/last
    2. /var/adm/lastboot
    3. /var/adm/messages
    4. /var/adm/wtmpx
    5. /var/sadm/last

  527. Which is a pseudo file system?
    1. CacheFS
    2. HSFS
    3. NFS
    4. PCFS
    5. UDF

  528. Which command creates a new boot environment?
    1. boot
    2. create
    3. lucreate
    4. zoneadm
    5. zonecfg

  529. Which file contains predefined partition tables for disk formatting?
    1. /etc/devtab
    2. /etc/devtable
    3. /etc/format.dat
    4. /etc/partition
    5. /etc/vfstab

  530. What is the best way to remove an user from the system and delete their files?
    1. Change the user's account name.
    2. Delete the user's home directory.
    3. Rename the user's home directory.
    4. Run the userdel command.
    5. Run the userdel -r command.

  531. A patch was added to a package that was working without a problem. After applying the patch, the package stopped working. The patch was then removed, but it did not solve the problem. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
    1. The patch has a virus.
    2. The patch made the package obsolete.
    3. The patch requires a license key that was not entered.
    4. The patch was added with the patchadd -d command.
    5. The patch was added with the patchadd -t command.

  532. Which command will eject media such as CD-ROM and floppy from a drive?
    1. eject
    2. remove
    3. umount -c
    4. volcancel
    5. volcheck

  533. What does the -u option do to the ufsdump command?
    1. Changes the runlevel of the system before the backup begins.
    2. It will create a syntax error as there is no -u option.
    3. The backup will be stored in ultra high density.
    4. Unmounts the file system before the backup begins.
    5. Updates the /etc/dumpdates file before the backup begins.

  534. A directory called /mg is created belonging to the group manage. What permissions should be set on the /mg directory so that all files created in that directory only be accessible to members of the group manage regardless of their primary group??
    1. d-----x---
    2. d---rsx---
    3. drwsrw----
    4. drwxrw-r-t
    5. drwxrwxrwt

  535. Which file should be edited to restrict user access to the FTP service?
    1. /etc/conf/ftp.hosts
    2. /etc/conf/ftp.users
    3. /etc/config/ftp.hosts
    4. /etc/config/ftp.users
    5. /etc/ftpd/ftpusers

  536. Given the entry from the /etc/default/login below
    CONSOLE=
    what will happen?
    1. No user can log in from the console.
    2. Only root user can log in from the console.
    3. Remote root logins are allowed from any host.
    4. Remote root logins are not allowed from any host.
    5. The root user can only log in from the console.

  537. Which file should be checked to see if there any installation errors?
    1. /etc/sadm/system/logs
    2. /var/sadm/install/logs
    3. /var/sadm/system/install_logs
    4. /var/sadm/system/log
    5. /var/system/install/log

  538. Which two files should be edited to change the minimum and maximum password length?
    1. /etc/default/passwd and /etc/policy.conf
    2. /etc/default/shadow and /etc/policy.conf
    3. /etc/pam.d and /etc/shadow
    4. /etc/passwd and /etc/policy.conf
    5. /etc/passwd and /etc/shadow

  539. Which is a disk based file system supported by Solaris 10?
    1. CacheFS
    2. CTFS
    3. NFS
    4. NTFS
    5. PCFS

  540. Which command will retrieve information on which snapshot belongs to which file system?
    1. fssnap -i
    2. snap -l
    3. snapshot -i
    4. snapshot -l
    5. ufssnap -i

  541. What is the function of the BIOS on an Intel based system?
    1. Changing the Master Boot Record.
    2. Changing the Master Boot Record and supporting USB devices.
    3. Controlling devices on the system and providing I/O services through interrupts.
    4. Enable the OpenBoot prompt.
    5. Scheduling kernel activities.

  542. Files under the /devices directory are controlled by which file system?
    1. devfs
    2. devicefs
    3. HSFS
    4. NFS
    5. PCFS

  543. Under which directory are host specific configuration files kept?
    1. /bin
    2. /etc
    3. /export/home
    4. /lib
    5. /var

  544. Which file should be edited to prevent a regular user from scheduling a one time job in the future?
    1. /bin/at.deny
    2. /etc/cron.d/at.deny
    3. /export/home/at.deny
    4. /var/cron.d/at.deny
    5. /var/spool/at.deny

  545. Which is the preferred command for starting and restarting the Solaris Installation program?
    1. install
    2. install-solaris
    3. load
    4. solarisinst
    5. suninst

  546. Which file should be edited to control the HISTORY parameter to keep users from reusing the same old password?
    1. /etc/default/passwd
    2. /etc/default/shadow
    3. /etc/pam.d
    4. /etc/passwd
    5. $HOME/.history

  547. What is the default port number used by the Solaris Management Console?
    1. 631
    2. 898
    3. 2049
    4. 8080
    5. 8081

  548. Which command will unmount a file system immediately?
    1. umount -f
    2. umount -now
    3. unmount -c
    4. unmount -F
    5. unmount -now

  549. Which is not a milestone that can be specified for the Service Management Facility?
    1. multi-user
    2. multi-user-nfs
    3. multi-user-server
    4. network
    5. single-user

  550. What is the smallest addressable storage unit on a disk platter?
    1. Block
    2. Cylinder
    3. Sector
    4. Slice
    5. Track

  551. A snapshot of /export/home was taken while users were working in their home directory. What happened to the system when the snapshot was taken?
    1. All users were logged out.
    2. The runlevel of the system was altered.
    3. The system crashed.
    4. The system was rebooted.
    5. Users may have noticed a system pause when the snapshot was taken.

  552. When using ufsrestore interactively, which command will show the files that are currently selected for restoration?
    1. dir
    2. marked
    3. select
    4. selected
    5. show

  553. Which function of the LP print service is used to verify the printer is in the appropriate state before submitting a print request?
    1. Booting
    2. Filtering
    3. Initialization
    4. Scheduling
    5. Tracking

  554. Which command will get the system to recognize a newly added disk drive without having to reboot the system?
    1. config
    2. devfsadm
    3. devsnap
    4. hotplug
    5. kudzu

  555. What will happen if the following is executed at the OpenBoot prompt?
    setenv auto-boot? true
    auto-boot? = true
    1. Nothing, the syntax is incorrect.
    2. The system will automatically boot after a power on or reset.
    3. The system will automatically reboot.
    4. The system will boot only to the ok prompt.
    5. The system will not boot until the variable is set to false.

  556. Which function of the LP print service converts a file into the appropriate file format for the destination printer?
    1. Conversion
    2. Filtering
    3. Initialization
    4. Scheduling
    5. Submitting

  557. Which command is the fastest way to shut down a system?
    1. halt
    2. init 0
    3. init 6
    4. reboot
    5. shutdown

  558. Under which directory does the LP print scheduler use to keep track of print requests?
    1. /etc/lp
    2. /etc/spool/lp
    3. /var/lp
    4. /var/print
    5. /var/spool/lp

  559. The existence of which file causes the system to check for the presence of any newly installed devices the next time it is powered on or booted?
    1. /etc/path_to_inst
    2. /dev/path_to_inst
    3. /reconfigure
    4. /var/path_to_inst
    5. /var/reconfigure

  560. Which option of grep searches for the expression as a word?
    1. -b
    2. -i
    3. -n
    4. -v
    5. -w

  561. Which is not a valid option of ifconfig command?
    1. dest
    2. mtu
    3. netmask
    4. plumb
    5. unplumb

  562. Which is not done by the /usr/sbin/sys-unconfig command?
    1. Removes the default domain name in the /etc/defaultdomain file.
    2. Removes the /etc/defaultrouter file.
    3. Removes the /etc/inet/netmasks file.
    4. Removes the /etc/TIMEZONE file.
    5. Restores the default /etc/inet/hosts file.

  563. Which command will generate SMF manifests from inetd.conf and place them in /var/tmp, overwriting any preexisting manifests of the same name, and then import them into the SMF repository?
    1. inetconv -e -i /var/tmp
    2. inetconv -f -o /var/tmp
    3. inetconv -i -o /var/tmp
    4. inetconv -n -i inetd.conf -o /var/tmp
    5. inetconv -n -o /var/tmp

  564. In which file are well-known port assignments stored?
    1. /etc/default/services
    2. /etc/inet/services
    3. /etc/service
    4. /var/log/ports
    5. /var/service

  565. Which utility prints the default size of a page of memory in bytes?
    1. cat /proc
    2. /usr/bin/meminfo
    3. /usr/bin/msync
    4. /usr/bin/pagesize
    5. /usr/bin/ppgsz

  566. Given the code below from the nscd.conf file
    debug-level 0
    keep-hot-count passwd 20
    old-data-ok passwd no
    check-files passwd yes
    positive-time-to-live hosts 600
    negative-time-to-live hosts 5
    
    which will increase performance of the Name Service Cache Daemon?
    1. Decrease keep-hot-count for passwd.
    2. Decrease negative-time-to-live for hosts.
    3. Decrease positive-time-to-live for hosts.
    4. Increase debug-level.
    5. Increase positive-time-to-live for hosts.

  567. What is the effect of root issuing the following command?
    cp /etc/nsswitch.nis /etc/nsswitch.conf
    1. Creates a new file called /etc/nsswitch.conf.
    2. Generates an error message for the file /etc/nsswitch.nis does not exist.
    3. Generates an error message for the user does not have permission to copy the file.
    4. Sets the configuration for the system to be a NIS client.
    5. Wipes out the original name service configuration.

  568. Which file contains proxy agent authentication information for an LDAP client to access an LDAP server?
    1. ldap_cachemgr
    2. ldap_client_auth
    3. ldap_client_cred
    4. ldap_client_file
    5. ldap_client_user

  569. In working with logical domains, which command will remove a virtual disk from a guest domain?
    1. ldm rm-vdisk
    2. ldm rm-vdsdev
    3. ldm set-vdsdev options=remove
    4. ldm set-vdsdev options=rm
    5. ldm set-vdsdev remove

  570. Which command shows the revision information (patch level) for the installed patches?
    1. analyze
    2. patchadd -P
    3. showrev -P
    4. smpatch
    5. uname -r

  571. Given the command
    flarcreate -n archive -c -R /var/log archive.flar
    Which statement is false?
    1. The archive is an exact duplicate of the master system and is stored in archive.flar.
    2. The archive is copied exactly from the master system and then compressed.
    3. The name of the archive is archive.
    4. The option -R is used to create the archive from another directory tree.
    5. The /var/log directory is excluded from the archive.

  572. In which file is the database of user login and accounting information kept?
    1. /var/adm/utmp
    2. /var/adm/wtmpx
    3. /var/sadm/utmp
    4. /var/sadm/wtmp
    5. /var/sadm/wtmpx

  573. What is indicated by a line in the /etc/hosts.equiv file that only contains +?
    1. All hosts and all users are allowed.
    2. End of the file.
    3. Only hosts in the NIS+ database are allowed.
    4. Only known hosts are allowed.
    5. Only known users are allowed.

  574. Which command describes the name of the instruction sets used by the operating system kernel components such as device drivers?
    1. isainfo -kv
    2. isalist
    3. psrinfo
    4. sysinfo
    5. uname -r

  575. How many disk slices can a Solaris 10 disk have?
    1. 5
    2. 6
    3. 7
    4. 8
    5. 15

  576. Which command allows the user to determine the file system type of unmounted file systems?
    1. fsck -v
    2. fstyp
    3. fstype
    4. mountall -l
    5. umount -a

  577. Which utility is used to write or display labels on unmounted disk file systems?
    1. diskinfo
    2. id -p
    3. labeld
    4. labelit
    5. volcopy

  578. Which command changes process scheduler parameters while the system is running?
    1. dispadmin -g
    2. dispadmin -s
    3. kill -p
    4. renice
    5. sconadm -r

  579. What of the the following tasks cannot be performed with the bootadm command?
    1. List the files and directories that are included in the boot archives on a system.
    2. Locate the active GRUB menu, as well as the current GRUB menu entries on x86 systems.
    3. Maintain the GRUB menu on x86 systems.
    4. Manually update the current boot archives on a system.
    5. Reboot the system.

  580. Which command will mount a NFS file system read only with no suid privileges?
    1. mount -nosuid server:/usr/src /usr/src
    2. mount -o nosuid server:/usr/src /usr/src
    3. mount -o nosuid /usr/src server:/usr/src
    4. mount -r -o nosuid server:/usr/src /usr/src
    5. mount -r -o nosuid /usr/src server:/usr/src

© 2008 - 2013 John Michael Pierobon

Notes